B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II),Solapur University Question Paper,ELECTRONICS (Old) Basic Electronics (Paper – III),

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
ELECTRONICS (Old)
Basic Electronics (Paper – III)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 20-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
4) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select correct alternative for the following : 10
i) A pentavalent impurity has ____________ valence electrons.
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
ii) A bridge full wave rectifier uses ____________ diodes.
a) 4 b) 2
c) 1 d) none
iii) In depletion region contains only
a) holes b) free electrons
c) ions d) none of these
iv) The purpose of a filter is to
a) minimise variations in ac input signal
b) supress harmonics in rectified output
c) remove ripples from the rectified output
d) stabilize dc output voltage
v) The β of a transistor is 99, then the value of α is
a) 9.9 b) 0.99
c) 99 d) 100
P.T.O.
Seat
No.
SLR-C – 43 -2-
vi) The phase difference between the input and output voltage in a common base
configuration is
a) 180° b) 90°
c) 270° d) 0°
vii) The operating point on a load line is also called the
a) cutoff point b) saturation point
c) quiescent point d) none of these
viii) A JFET is a ____________ driven device.
a) voltage
b) current
c) both voltage and current
d) none of these
ix) Barrier potential of PN junction decreases by ___________ per degree rise in
temperature.
a) 2 mV b) 2 V
c) 20 mV d) 20 V
x) In a n channel JFET, the charge carriers are
a) electrons
b) holes
c) both electrons and holes
d) ions
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) Draw a symbol of zener diode and photo diode with labels.
ii) Explain the effect of temperature on extrensic semiconductor.
iii) Draw a circuit diagram of half wave rectifier with input and output wave forms.
iv) A typical transistor has β = 99. Calculate the value of α .
v) State different types of transistor biasing.
vi) Why MOSFET is also called as an insulated gate FET ?
-3- SLR-C – 43
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Define transconductance of FET. Find the value of transconductance if
μ = 80 and rd = 400 kΩ .
ii) Write a short note on N-type semiconductor.
iii) Write a short note on dc load line.
B) Write a short note on photodiode. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Show that the maximum efficiency of full wave rectifier is 81.2%.
ii) With the help of suitable circuit diagram, explain IV characteristics of PN
junction diode.
iii) Describe transistor action in detail.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Explain temperature compensation using single diode.
ii) Explain output characteristics of transistor in CE configuration.
iii) Write a short note on capacitor filter.
_______________

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2014 Question Paper, Solapur University Question Paper,B.Sc. II (Semester – III),STATISTICS (Paper – V)

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. II (Semester – III) Examination, 2014
STATISTICS (Paper – V)
Continuous Probability Distributions – I
Day and Date : Tuesday, 27-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose the correct alternative : 10
1) If X is a random variable having it p.d.f. f(x), the E(X) is called
a) arithmetic mean b) geometric mean
c) harmonic mean d) none of these
2) Two random variables X and Y are said to be independent ; if
a) E(XY) = 1 b) E(XY) = 0
c) E(XY) = E(X)E(Y) d) None of these
3) If FX(x) is the cumulative distribution function (cdf) of a continuous r.v.X, then
it is
a) decreasing function of X b) non-decreasing function of X
c) both a and b d) none of these
4) If M is the median of continuous r.v.X with p.d.f. f(x), then ∫
−∞
M
f(x)dx will be
equal to
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2
1 d) none of these
5) M.G.F. of sum of independent r.v.’s is equal to
a) sum of their m.g.f. b) product of their m.g.f.
c) both a and b d) none of these
P.T.O.
Seat
No.
SLR-C – 61 -2-
6) If X and Y are independent r.v.’s then the c.d.f FX,Y(x, y) is equal to
a) F (x) F (y) X ⋅ Y b) P(X ≤ x)⋅P(Y ≤ y)
c) both a and b d) none of these
7) If X~ U(0,1), then E(X) is equal to
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2
1 d) none of these
8) The distribution function of a continuous uniform distribution of a variable X
lying in the interval (a, b) is
a) b a
1
− b) b a
X a
−
− c) X a
b a
−
− d) none of these
9) If X ~ exp(θ), then the Var(X) will be equal to
a) θ
1 b) 2
1
θ c) θ d) none of these
10) Memoryless property holds in case of
a) uniform distribution b) exponential distribution
c) both a and b d) none of these
2. Answer any five of the following. 10
For a continuous random vector (X, Y), define :
i) Marginal p.d.f. of X and Y
ii) Conditional distribution of X given Y = y
iii) Expectation of a function g(X, Y)
iv) Conditional expectation of X given Y = y
v) Conditional variance of X given Y = y
vi) Cov (X, Y).
3. A) Answer any two of the following. 6
i) Let the r.v.X with p.d.f. f(x) given by
= ω
= ≤ ≤
0 ; 0
f(x) kx; 0 x 1
Find k and mean of X.
ii) For given the joint p.d.f. of (X, Y)
= ω
= ≤ ≤ ≤ ≤
0 ; 0
y ; 0 x 2, 0 y 1 2
3 f(x,y) 2
Are X and Y are independent ?
iii) If
= ω
π ≤ ≤ − π
π =
0 ; 0
2 x 2 ;
1 f(x)
Find the p.d.f. of Y = tanx.
B) State and prove the multiplication theorem of expectation. 4
4. Answer any two of the following. 10
i) The p.d.f. of a continuous r.v.X is given by
= ω
= ≤ ≤
0 ; 0
f(x) 3x ; 0 x 1 2
Find mean and vraince of X.
ii) Let X and Y be continuous r.v.’s having joint p.d.f.

= ω
< <
= − < <
0 ; 0
0 y 1
f (x, y) 12 xy(1 y) ; 0 x 1
Show that X and Y are independent.
iii) Define uniform distribution over (a, b). Obtain the variance of distribution.
5. Answer any two of the following. 10
i) Probability density function (p.d.f) of r.v.X is given by
= ω
= < <
0 ; 0
; 0 x 2 2
x f(x)
Find variance and median of X.
ii) If X has uniform distribution over (0, 1). Find the distribution of Y = –2logeX.
iii) If X~exp(θ), then find its m.g.f. and hence E(X).
–––––––––––––––––

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
CHEMISTRY
Paper – VIII : Analytical and Industrial Inorganic Chemistry
Day and Date: Saturday, 26-4-14 Max. Marks: 50
Time: 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat labelled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
1. Select the most correct alternative and rewrite the following sentences : 10
1) The rapid change in pH of titration is shown by parallel line to the pH-axis in
the neutralisation curve is known as __________
a) titration break b) end point
c) equivalence point d) all of above
2) The particle size of curdy precipitate is ___________
a) 10–9 to 10–6 m b) 10–10 to 10–9 m
c) 10–6 to 10–5 m d) 10–2 to 10–3 m
3) The organic dyestuffs which are chelating agent themselves forms complexes
with metal ion and show change in colour with change in concentration of
metal ion is known as __________
a) indicator b) redox indicator
c) acid-base indicator d) metallochromic indicator
4) Coagulation and ___________ are reversible to each other.
a) crystallization b) peptization
c) neutralization d) neucleation
5) In the hydrogenation of vegetable oil ________ is used as a catalyst.
a) Al b) Cu c) Ni d) Pt
Seat
No.
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 85 -2-
6) To destroy pathogenic microbes in potable water commonly ________ is used.
a) chlorine b) fluorine c) iodine d) all of these
7) All available resources of water _________ is the purest form of water.
a) river b) lake c) pond d) rain
8) The __________ is known as king of chemicals.
a) NH3 b) H2SO4 c) HNO3 d) HCl
9) The properties of different varieties of steel depend on __________
a) percentage of carbon b) metal other than iron
c) method of preparation d) all of these
10) Chromium-Nickel steel is used for construction of bridge in sea because it is
__________
a) cheap
b) easily available
c) resistant to corrosive action of sea water
d) all of these
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) What is primary standard ? Give any two examples.
ii) Precipitation must be carried out from hot and dilute solutions. Why ?
iii) Explain the role of promoters in catalysis.
iv) What are the parameters of potability of water ?
v) Write balanced chemical reactions in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by
contact process.
vi) Why cast iron is converted into steel ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Write note on Quinoid theory of acid-base indicator.
ii) Distinguish between co-precipitation and post-precipitation.
iii) Give any three industrial applications of catalysis.
B) Explain the effect of temperature and pressure in the manufacture of H2SO4
by contact process. 4
-3- SLR-C – 85
4. Write short note on any two of the following : 10
i) Types of catalysis.
ii) Ion exchange process.
iii) L.D. process.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) With the help of neutralisation curve explain the choice of indicator for titration
of strong acid and weak base.
ii) Explain the characteristics of organic precipitants in gravimetric analysis.
iii) Draw a neat labelled diagram for the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s
process. Give the optimum conditions involved in it.
—

PLANT PROTECTION (Paper – III),Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper,B.Sc. II (Semester – IV)

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
PLANT PROTECTION (Paper – III)
Introduction to Weeds and non Insect Pests
Day and Date : Monday, 28-4-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever must.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answers from given alternatives : 10
1) Plants growing in field, which are not useful at all to man are called
a) Crop plants b) Vegetables c) Weeds d) Herbs
2) Dicot weeds are effectively controlled by ________
a) Atrazine b) Simazine c) 2,4-D d) Glyphosate
3) Weeds __________ value of land.
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Keep as it is d) None of above
4) Weeds _________ soil erosion by rainfall.
a) Increase b) Check
c) Remains as it is d) None of above
5) Loranthus is __________ weed.
a) Total parasite b) Semiparasite
c) Stem parasite d) None of these
6) Striga is __________ parasitic weed.
a) Stem b) Root c) Leaf d) None of these
7) In cuscuta _______ are water absorbing organs.
a) Roots b) Suckers c) Haustoria d) Hanging roots
8) Orobanche grows on roots of
a) Tomato b) Jowar c) Maize d) Gram
Seat
No.
SLR-C – 89
9) Argemone mexicana weed is introduced to India from __________.
a) Peru b) Mexico c) Brazil d) Chili
10) Weed the field and ___________ the Yield.
a) Increase b) Reduce c) Double d) None of above
2. Answer any five of the followings : 10
i) Give only classification of weedicides
ii) Give an account of losses caused by Birds
iii) Losses caused by rhodents
iv) Losses caused by nematodes
v) Simazine or Atrazine
vi) Mulching.
3. A) Answers any two of the followings : 6
i) Harrowing
ii) Hand weeding by khurupi
iii) Use of weedicides for weed control
B) Write a note on : 4
Parthenium reproduction, seed disper sal, & control.
4. Answer any two of the followings : 10
i) Mechanical methods of Rat control
ii) Biological methods of weed control
iii) Role of cover crop in weed control.
5. Answer any two of the followings : 10
i) Aquatic weeds
ii) Losses caused by weeds, give any five points
iii) Poisonous weeds.
————————

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
GEOCHEMISTRY
Principles of Geochemistry (Paper – III)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 30-4-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative from each of the following : 10
1) Chemical equilibrium is _______ in nature.
a) static b) dynamic c) elastic d) none of these
2) Na2CO3 is _______ in nature.
a) basic b) acidic c) neutral d) hypotonic
3) Organic acid contains ________ group.
a) ––COOH b) >c = 0 c) ––OH d) ––NH2
4) Silica is a _________ clay mineral.
a) positive b) neutral c) negative d) zero
5) The rate constant “K” for the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is ___________
a) [N ][3H ]
[2NH ] K
2 2
3 = b) [N ][H ]
[NH ] K
2 2
3 =
c) 3
2 2
2
3
[N ][H ]
[NH ] K = d) None of these
6) The formation of petroleum is from ________ rocks.
a) Sedimentary b) Igneous c) Metamorphic d) Besalt
7) Brownian movement is _________ property of colloidal solution.
a) mechanical b) electrical c) optical d) chemical
Seat
No.
SLR-C – 95
8) Acid rock contains high percentage of
a) SiO2 b) MgO c) CaO d) FeO
9) The formula of Olivine is
a) [SiO4]
–4 b) [SiO4]
–7 c) [SiO4]
–3 d) [Si2O7]
–6
10) The name of CaSO4 is ________.
a) gypsum b) mica c) quartz d) beryl
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) Define : emulsion. Give one example.
ii) Write the structure of
a) Cyclohexane
b) Glycine
iii) Give the geological uses for acids and bases (any two).
iv) Discuss the effect of temperature on the reaction between CO2 and H2O.
v) Discuss : Bredig’s Arc method for the preparation of gold sol.
vi) Define hydrolysis. Write hydrolysis reaction only for Na2CO3 hydrolysis.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Explain : clay minerals as colloids
ii) Discuss the conventions of chemical equilibrium
iii) Draw the structure of :
a) Hemimorphite
b) Beryl
B) Distinguish between true solution and colloidal solution. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Explain : The origin of coal
ii) State and explain Lechatalier’s principle
iii) Write a short note on “Occurrence of carbon in rock”.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Explain : origin of petroleum
ii) Discuss : Tyndall effect
iii) Explain the stability of colloidal solution.
————————

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Solapur University Qusetion Paper
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
PHYSICS (New) (Paper – II)
Optics and Laser
Day and Date : Saturday, 7-6-2014 Thursday, 8-11-2012 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. 10.30 p.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Use of logarithmic table or nonprogrammable calculator is
allowed.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn, wherever necessary.
v) Answer to every new question must be written on a new page.
1. Select and write the most appropriate answer from given alternatives for each
sub-question. 10
i) By Fermat’s principle, the condition for the time t to be extremum is
a) 0 dx
dt ≠ b) 0 dx
dt < c) 0 dx
dt > d) 0 dx
dt =
ii) In Fraunhofer type diffraction, edge of an obstacle is illuminated by
a) spherical wavefront b) cylindrical wave front
c) plane wavefront d) elliptical wavefront
iii) The phenomenon of bending of light round the edges of an obstacle is called
a) reflection b) refraction c) diffraction d) polarisation
iv) In Ruby Laser, pumping type used is
a) electrical b) optical c) chemical d) thermal
v) Light rays incident near the rim or edge of the lens are called
a) marginal rays b) paraxial rays
c) co-axial rays d) non-axial rays
P.T.O.
Seat
No.
SLR-CN – 204 -2-

vi) Fringe width X for interference of light in wedge shaped film is given by
a) λ θ b) λ
θ c) μθ
λ
2 d) λ
2μθ
vii) Path difference Δ for destructive type of interference is given by
a) nλ b) 2nλ c) (2n +1)λ d) 2 (2n 1) λ +
viii) Value of radius of curvature of a curved surface of the plano-convex lens
used in the formation of Newton’s Rings is
a) large b) small c) infinity d) zero
ix) Focal length of Huygen’s eye-piece is 21 cm, focal length of eye lens will be
a) 8 cm b) 10 cm c) 12 cm d) 14 cm
x) When 15000 lines per inch are ruled on the surface of a plane diffraction
grating’ for this grating, grating element d is given by _________ cm.
a) 15000
1 b) 15000 c) 15000
2.54 d) 2.54
15000
2. Answer any five of the following. 10
i) Describe the Fresnel’s type diffraction of light.
ii) State any one application of : optical bench.
iii) Define : pumping process in connection with production of Laser.
iv) Write the condition of constructive type interference of light for the interference
of light in parallel faced film.
v) Explain the process of spontaneous emission of radiation.
vi) Calculate, the focal length of Ramsden’s eye-piece when focal length of eye
lens is 16 cm.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Describe any three properties of a Laser source of light.
ii) Write a short note on : Huygen’s Eye-Piece.
iii) How many of maximum orders will be visible if wavelength used is 6000 Å
and plane diffraction grating having grating element d = 1.693 × 10–4 cm ?
B) How are the replica of the original plane diffraction grating prepared ? 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Explain construction and working of : Helium-Neon Laser.
ii) Describe the Ramsden’s Eye-Piece.
iii) Determine value of grating element of plane diffraction grating which is used.
For normal incidence of light a red coloured spectral line of wavelength 7000 Å
of a certain order coincides with a green coloured spectral line of wavelength
5250 Å of the next order at an angle of diffraction of 30°.
5. Answer any one of the following : 10
i) Describe an experiment of Newton’s Rings. Derive a formula for determining
the wavelength of monochromatic source of light by an experiment of Newton’s
Rings.
ii) Derive the condition of achromatism for two lenses kept in contact.
Calculate the focal lengths of two lenses used for formation of an achromatic
combination of focal length 150 cm. The lenses are kept in contact and
dispersive powers of their materials are : 0.018 and 0.027.

STATISTICS Paper – I,2014 Question Paper, B.Sc.– I (Semester – I) (New),Solapur University Question Paper

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc.– I (Semester – I) (New) Examination, 2014
STATISTICS Paper – I
Descriptive Statistics – I
Day and Date : Monday, 9-6-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to1.00 p.m.
 N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and each carry equal
marks.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose an appropriate alternate to the following : 10
1) Which one of the following is correct ?
a) M.D. > S. D. b) M.D. ≠ S. D.
c) M.D. > S. D. d) M.D. < S. D.
2) The value of P50 is
a) equal to Q3 b) equal to Q1
c) equal to D5 d) none of thes
3) Median of an arranged data is the
a) Most frequent value b) Minimum value
c) Maximum value d) Middle most value
4) The A.M. of a certain series of observations is 4. If each value is increased
by 3 then the A.M. is
a) 3 b) 4
c) 7 d) None of these
5) If the smallest value in a set is 7 and its range is 85, then the largest value of
set is
a) 78 b) 92
c) 12.14 d) None of these
P.T.O.
Seat
No.
SLR-CN – 206 -2-

6) If β 2 = 3 then the curve is
a) Lepto kurtic b) Plattykurtic
c) Mesokurtic d) None of these
7) The first order moment about origin is
a) One b) Zero
c) Mean d) None of these
8) The most repeated observation is
a) A.M. b) G.M.
c) H.M. d) None of these
9) With the help of an ogive, one can not determine
a) Median b) Quartiles
c) Percentiles d) None of these
10) M.D. is least when measured from
a) Mean b) Median
c) Mode d) None of these
2. Attempt any five of the following : 10
i) State the requirement of a good measures of central tendency.
ii) For two positive observations a and b, show that G.M. = A.M. × H.M. .
iii) Define quartiles and deciles.
iv) Given the variance of a mesokurtic distribution is 4. Find μ 4.
v) State the first 4 central moments in terms of raw moments.
vi) Define C.V. and explain its utility.
3. A) Attempt any two of the following : 6
i) The first two moments of a distribution about 4 are 3 and 34. Find mean
and variance.
ii) Distinguish between absolute and relative measures of dispersion.
iii) Show that mean square deviation is greater than or equal to variance.
B) Write a note on Skewness and Kurtosis. 4

 -3- SLR-CN – 206
4. Attempt any two of the following : 10
i) Explain the construction of an ogive curve.
ii) Explain the terms :
1) relative frequency
2) open end classes
3) class frequency
iii) Show that the sum of deviations about mean of a frequency distribution is
zero.
5. Attempt any one of the following : 10
i) A variable takes values 1, 2, . . . n with frequencies 1, 2, . . . n. Find its mean
and variance.
ii) Derive the formula for finding mode for a grouped frequency distribution.
_______________

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. (Biotechnology) (Semester – VI) Examination, 2014
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (Comp.)
Day and Date : Sunday, 27-4-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Multiple choice questions : 10
I) Earth day is celebrated on _________.
A) 22nd Jan. B) 22nd Feb. C) 22nd March D) 22nd April
II) ‘Sahara’ is an example of _____ ecosystem.
A) Desert B) Forest C) Marine D) Grassland
III) Marine life is in danger due to __________ pollution.
A) Air B) Water C) Land D) Noise
IV) __________ gas is responsible for ozone depletion.
A) CFC B) CO2 C) SO2 D) O2
V) In India Wildlife Protection Act passed in __________.
A) 1962 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1992
VI) The main source of air pollution in India is ________.
A) Automobiles B) Industrialization
C) Forest fire D) Nuclear explosion
VII) _________ percent of earth geographical area is under water.
A) 60% B) 61% C) 70% D) 71%
VIII) Need for public awareness is important for the __________.
A) AIDS B) Malaria C) Filariasis D) Elephantiasis
IX) The primary source of energy is _________.
A) Wind B) Sun C) Hydal energy D) Tidels
X) Lion is _________ consumer in the ecosystem.
A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Heterotrophs
Seat
No.
SLR-D – 59
2. Write short answers of the following (any four out of six) : 8
a) Definition of environment
b) Food chain of ecosystem
c) Causes of water pollution
d) Causes of generation of solid waste
e) Biodiversity in Western Ghat
f) Causes of population growth.
3. Write short notes of the following (any four out of six) : 12
a) Forest ecosystem
b) Uses of minerals
c) Nuclear Hazards
d) Remedies of water pollution
e) Effects of water pollution
f) Causes of noise pollution.
4. a) What is Forest resources ? Describe how forest resources can be conserved.
10
OR
b) What is pollution ? Discuss the causes, effects and preventive measures of
air pollution.
5. Define global warming. Explain the causes and effects of it. 10
—

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Looking for CS6302 Database Management Systems DBMS BE CSE Important Questions for Nov Dec 2015 exams ? You have reached the right place IUQP which provides you all important questions, previous years question papers, model questions, 2 marks questions and answers, 16 marks questions and lecture notes. Here under you will find important questions of CS6302 Database Management Systems which may be used for preparing Anna University examinations during Nov Dec 2015. 14th November 2015 is the exam date of CS6302 Database Management Systems.

Anna University , Chennai
Department of B.E CSE
Third Semester
CS6302 Database Management Systems
November / December 2015 Exam Important Questions
(Regulation 2013)

Questions will be updated soon.

Anna University Chennai
Department of B.E Computer Science and Engineering
B.E / B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION Nov/ Dec 2015
THIRD SEMESTER
C56302 Database Management Systems
(REGULATION 2013)

1. What is data integrity? Explain the types of integrity constraints.

2. Construct an E-R diagram for a car-insurance company whose customers own one or more cars each. Each car has associated with it zero to any number of recorded accidents. State any assumptions you make.

3. With relevant examples discuss the various operations in Relational Algebras

4. Discuss Join Dependencies and Fifth Normal Form, and explain why SNF?

5. Discuss about the Join order optimization and Heuristic Optimization algorithms. (16)

6.  Discuss in detail the operators SELECT , PROJECT. UNION with suitable examples.

7.

Diagrammatically illustrate and discuss the steps involved in processing a query.

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. I (Biotechnology) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION AND MICROBIAL TECHNIQUES (New)
Paper – II : Microbial Techniques
Day and Date : Saturday, 10-5-2014ursday, 8-11-2012 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.0 p.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentences again. 10
1) ________ is used as a nitrogen source and buffering agent in the semisynthetic
nutrient media.
a) Meat extract b) Peptone c) Yeast extract d) NaCl
2) Mannitol salt agar is selectively used for growth of _________ organism.
a) S. aureus b) E. Coli c) S. typhi d) B. subtilis
3) Nitrobacter spp. utilize energy from
a) NO2 b) H2 c) H2S d) Fe2+
4) Gram’s iodine is
a) Iry stain b) IIry stain c) Mordant d) Decolourizing agent
5) Acid-Fast is example of
a) Simple staining b) Positive staining
c) Negative staining d) Differential staining
6) Two log phases are separated by short lag phase is observed in _________
growth.
a) normal b) diauxic c) synchronous d) continuous
7) ________ is used as pH indicator in MacConkey’s agar.
a) Bromothymol blue b) Andrade’s indicator
c) Neutral red d) Phenol red
8) ________ is used in ophthalmic preparation as an antimicrobial agent.
a) Mercuric chloride b) Ethylene oxide
c) Copper sulphate d) Silver nitrate
P.T.O.
Seat
No.
SLR-DN – 52 -2-
9) Autoclave at 15 lb pressure shows _________ temperature.
a) 121.5°C b) 115° C c) 109° C d) 100° C
10) Glasswares like petriplates and pipettes are mainly sterilized in
a) Autoclave b) Hot air oven c) Tyndallizer d) Pasteurizer
2. Define and explain (any five) of the following. 10
1) Synchronous growth
2) Stain
3) Lyophilization
4) Pasteurisation
5) Pure culture
6) Anaerobic microbes.
3. A) Write short notes (any two). 6
1) Serial dilution technique
2) Differential media
3) Autoclave.
B) Explain growth phases of Bacteria. 4
4. Answer (any two) of the following. 10
1) Explain anaerobic culture methods.
2) Explain pure culture techniques.
3) Explain differential staining techniques.
5. Answer (any two) of the following. 10
1) Explain sterilization using chemical agent.
2) Explain various components and indicators used in microbial nutrient media.
3) Explain in brief selection of microorganisms using chemical, physical and
biological methods.
––––

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Solapur Unversity Question Paper
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (New)
Biometry & Tissue Culture (Paper – II) Introduction to Tissue Culture
Day and Date : Saturday, 17-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B.: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives : 10
1) Elements required by plants in concentration greater than 0.5 Mmol/Lit are
referred as
a) Micro molecules b) Macro molecules
c) Vitamins d) Co-factors
2) Micro-elements are essential as _____ for many biochemical reactions.
a) Co-factors b) Catalysts
c) Enzymes d) Carbon source
3) _________ consider as father of plant tissue culture.
a) White b) Skoog
c) Haberlandt d) Thimann
4) ___________ is a type of organogenesis by which only adventitious root
formation takes place.
a) Rhizogenesis b) Caulogenesis
c) Embryogenesis d) Cytogenesis
5) Artificial seeds developed from
a) Callus culture b) Micropropagation
c) Somatic embryoids d) Anther culture
6) _______ described procedure to obtain passaged monolayer.
a) Dulbecco b) Eagle
c) Earle d) Harrison
Seat
No.
SLR-DN – 56
7) _________ method is quick and cheap method of cell separation.
a) Enzymatical b) Physical
c) Clinical d) Orbital
8) Two important enzymes used for disaggregation of tissue are
a) Trypsin and pectinase b) Collagenase and pectinase
c) Cellulase and trypsin d) Collagenase and trypsin
9) Most important protein required for growth of animal cell is
a) Transferrin b) Casein
c) Albumin d) Globulin
10) Viable cells are impermeable to
a) Diacetyl Fluorescin b) Eosin Y
c) Propidium iodide d) Fluorescin
2. Answer the following (any five) : 10
1) Growth room in PTC
2) Plant growth hormones
3) Acclimatization
4) Role of Inverted microscope
5) Natural media
6) Primary cell line.
3. a) Answer the following (any two) : 6
1) Explain organ culture by plasma clot technique
2) Write a note on callus culture
3) Explain membrane integrity assay for viability.
b) Explain in detail role of inorganic micronutrients in plant tissue culture. 4
4. Answer the following (any two) : 10
1) Discuss haploid plant production by anther culture
2) Describe in detail suspension culture
3) Give details of instruments used in animal tissue culture laboratory.
5. Answer the following (any two) : 10
1) Explain different stages of invitro clonal propagation.
2) Give details of cold trypsinization
3) Describe in detail synthetic media for animal tissue culture.
———————

2014 Question Paper,BIOTECHNOLOGY Cell Physiology – II (Old),Solapur University Question Paper,B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II)

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Cell Physiology – II (Old)
Day and Date : Saturday, 10-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
 N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives given below. 10
1) _____________ type of cell signalling controls the behaviour of the organism.
a) Autocrine b) Exocrine
c) Endocrine d) Combinatorial
2) _____________ is act as second messenger during cell signalling.
a) Ca2+ b) Zn2+
c) Cu2+ d) Mn2+
3) In Xenopus embryogenesis, mid-blastula transition is characterized by
activation of _____________ in embryonic cells.
a) Protein synthesis b) Translation
c) Transcription d) Replication
4) In ascidian embryogenesis, yellow cytoplasm is rich in mitochondria which
eventually gives rise to _____________ and muscles.
a) Ectoderm b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm d) Both a) and b)
5) Cytoplasmic localizations of ___________ may determine the initial differences
between embryonic cells.
a) cell determinants b) cell granules
c) cell inclusions d) cell organelles
6) Microvilli are cytoplasmic processes covered by plasma membrane, which
increase the effective surface area of cell for _____________
a) secretion b) transport
c) absorption d) ultrafiltration
SLR-D – 12 -2-
7) _____________ are example of communicating junctions.
a) Gap junction b) Tight junction
c) Septate junction d) Belt desmosome
8) The process of ingestion of large sized solid substances by the cell is
known as _____________
a) Pinnocytosis b) Transport
c) Cell drinking d) Phagocytosis
9) _____________ are required for proper localization of proteins in the cell.
a) Localization key b) Sorting signal
c) Bar code d) Localization label
10) Unit membrane model of plasma membrane was proposed by _____________
a) Watson b) Crick
c) Robertson d) Singer and Nicolson
2. Answer the following (any 5) : 10
1) What are receptors ?
2) What is endocytosis ?
3) Define pleuripotency.
4) What are Hemi-desmosomes ?
5) What are cell recognition molecules ?
6) What are gap junctions ?
3. A).Answer the following (any 2) : 6
1) Explain cell determinants with suitable example.
2) Describe types of cell signalling.
3) Describe fluid mosaic model of cell membrane.
B) Describe in detail role of nuclear poses in protein transport. 4
4. Answer the following (any 2) : 10
1) Write an essay on active transport.
2) Explain intracellular compartments.
3) Explain differentiation of cell membrane with suitable examples.
5. Answer the following (any 2) : 10
1) Describe protein trafficking in mitochondria and chloroplast.
2) Write an detailed account on molecular mechanisms of cell differentiation.
3) Explain in detail adhering junctions with suitable example.
_____________________

B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II),2014 Question Paper,BASIC BIOTECHNOLOGY – II (Old),Solapur University Question Paper

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
BASIC BIOTECHNOLOGY – II (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 12-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
 N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives given below : 10
1) Variants selected in protoplast cultures have been referred to as _________
a) Calliclones b) Protoclones c) Polyclones d) Aneoclones
2) Over population of ______________ sometimes enhance the protein value
of the variant cell lines.
a) Auxins b) Cytokinins c) Amino acid d) Antibodies
3) Somaclonal variations are the ones __________
a) caused by mutagens
b) caused by hybridization
c) Produced during tissue culture
d) Induced during sexual embryogeny
4) A GM crop is __________
a) Irradiated crop b) Transgenic crop
c) Raised on green manure d) Wild crop
5) _____________ enzymes are often used for isolation of protoplast.
a) Gyrase b) Polymerase c) Cellulase d) Invertase
6) The organism used for production of ‘BT’ bioinsecticide belongs to the
genus ___________
a) Borrelia b) Bacillus c) Bordetella d) All of these
7) _____________ is novel technique involving combination of RFLP and RAPD.
a) QTL b) AFLP c) SCAR’s d) STS
SLR-D – 13
8) Bt cotton is preferred over other varieties of cotton because of its ______
a) High yield b) Quick growth
c) Weedicidal property d) Resistance to bollworm
9) Virus free plants can be obtained through _________
a) Shoot tip culture b) Haploid culture
c) Proto plast fusion d) Embryo culture
10) __________ preservation of cell suspension was considered as a potential
method for plant germplam storage.
a) Freeze drying b) Cold storage
c) Liquid N2 freeze d) Freezing
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) Somoclones ii) Hybrids
iii) Protoplast iv) Germ-plasm
v) Pigments vi) Cloning.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Write a note on protoplast culture.
ii) Give an account of herbicide resistant plant.
iii) Describe mechanism of aided breeding.
B) Explain how can we produce male sterile plants. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Explain the mechanism of isolation of stress tolerant line.
ii) Give detailed account of cytopreservation.
iii) Describe method of production of plant resistant to pathogens.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) How can we improve time of flowering in plants ?
ii) Explain RFLP on a molecular marker.
iii) Write a note on molecular marker assisted selection.
_____________________

2014 Question Paper,Solapur University Question Paper,BASICS OF TISSUE CULTURE – II (Old),B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II)

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
BASICS OF TISSUE CULTURE – II (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 13-5-2014 Total Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
1. Choose correct answer from the given alternative and rewrite the sentence : 10
1) Use of tissue culture technique for micro propagation was first started by
_____________
a) Mura Shigue b) G. Morel c) Mannae d) Haber Landt
2) _____________ accelerates blood glucose level.
a) Thyrotropin b) Thyroxine c) Glucagon d) Insulin
3) _____________ is an androgen hormone present in vertebrates.
a) Testosterone b) Thyroxine c) Calcitonine d) ADH
4) Endocrine glands are also known as _____________
a) Ductless glands b) Duct glands
c) Serous gland d) Apoglands
5) _____________ is the simplest and most widely used fermenter.
a) Air lift fermenter b) Stirred tank reactor
c) Hollow fibre bioreactor d) Fluidized bed reactor
6) Infection of dicot plant by __________ causes formation of hairy roots at the
infection site.
a) A. rhizogen b) A. tumefaciean
c) A. spirogen d) All of above
7) ____________ is the protein secreted by larvae of certain lepidopteron moth.
a) Silk b) Nylon c) Polyster d) Teflon
SLR-D – 14
8) Killed or attenuated microorganisms are used for artificial active immunization
are called _________
a) Hormones b) Vaccines
c) Neurotransmitters d) neurohormones
9) The process of replacing defective gene leading to disability by normal functional
gene is known as ________________
a) Gene cloning b) Gene therapy
c) Gene vector d) Gene shuttle.
10) _______ method used for gene transfer into nuclei also bring about chloroplast
transformation.
a) Particle gun b) PEG treatment
c) Micro injection d) All of above
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) Micro propogation.
ii) Cocoon formation in sericulture.
iii) Hormones of carbohydrate metabolism of vertebrates.
iv) Antibodies production from plants.
v) Aquaculture.
vi) Applications of tissue culture.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Production of disease free plants.
ii) Importance of hormones as biotechnological products.
iii) Mass cultivation of cells in bioreactors.
B) Explain green house technology. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Chloroplast transformation.
ii) Write a brief account on Human genome project.
iii) Hormonal regulation of reproduction of vertebrates.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Mechanism of steroid hormone action.
ii) Write on elicitor induced accumulation of products.
iii) Acclimalization of plant transfer to soil. _________________
P.T.O.
SLR-

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
MICROBIOLOGY – II
 (Section – I) (Old)
Day and Date : Thursday, 15-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
 N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from given
alternatives : 10
1) Root nodules of the leguminous plants contain _______________
a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter
c) Bacillus thuringiensis d) Pseudomonas
2) ______________ is a primary stain in, acid fast staining of mycobacteria.
a) Crystal violet b) Carbol fuchsin
c) Methylene blue d) Basic fuchsin
3) Heat labile solutions can be sterilized by ____________
a) autoclaving b) lyophilisation
c) filtration d) none of these
4) _____________ is an example of dual fermentation.
a) Alcohol b) Beer
c) Wine d) Vinegar
5) ____________ are present in fermentor to avoid vortex formation.
a) Baffle b) Sparger
c) Impeller d) None of these
6) ______________ is an example of secondary metabolite produced by
microorganisms.
a) Citric acid b) Ethanol
c) Penicillin d) Vitamin B12
SLR-D – 15
7) _______________ classification system is based on evolutionary relationship.
a) Phylogenetic b) Phenetic
c) Numerical d) Classical
8) Lab scale fermentor have ______________ liters of capacity.
a) 1 – 2 b) 50 – 100
c) 20 – 50 d) 1000 – 5000
9) ______________ is an example of endoenzyme produced by microorganisms.
a) Lipase b) Amylase
c) Protease d) Invertase
10) _____________ is a variant bacterial strain with distinctive antigenic properties.
a) Morphovar b) Biovar
c) Serovar d) Pathovar
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
1) Define – Sterilization.
2) Define – Neutral stain. Give any two examples.
3) Define – type strain.
4) Give the recommended uses of hot air oven.
5) Define – secondary metabolites. Give any two examples.
6) What are antifoam agents ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
1) Write a note of negative staining.
2) Give an account of nonionizing radiations for control of microorganisms.
3) Write a note on recovery of fermentation product.
B) Write a note on acid fast staining. 4
4. Write short notes on any two : 10
1) Morphological characters used for classification.
2) Microbial enzymes.
3) Moist heat sterilization.
5. Write short notes on any two : 10
1) Biogas production.
2) Basic design of fermentor.
3) Genetic improvement of industrial microbes.
_____________________

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Ecology – II
Day and Date : Saturday, 17-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
 N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following questions by choosing correct alternative given below : 10
1) The ultimate sufferer of pollution is _______________
a) Plant b) Terrestrial animal
c) Aquatic animal d) Man
2) Component not released in burning of coal is ___________
a) NO2 b) SO2 c) Fly ash d) O2
3) The causes of depletion of ozone layer in atmosphere is ___________
a) Feron gases b) Supersonic jet travels
c) Nitrogen oxides d) All of these
4) ____________ is an example of Marine Pollution.
a) Bhopal gas tragedy b) Chernobyl episode
c) Minamata episode d) All of these
5) Exposure of human body to radiation may cause ___________
a) Polio b) Hemophilia c) Leukemia d) Cholera
6) MIC is related with ______________
a) Taj Mahal b) London Smog
c) Aerosols d) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
7) ____________ gas is major contributor to atmosphere.
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) Carbon dioxide
SLR-D – 16
8) ____________ is leading source of energy used in United States.
a) Coal b) Oil resources c) Natural gas d) Nuclear Power
9) ___________ energy is derived from heated ground water.
a) Solar energy b) Geothermal energy
c) Hydroelectric energy d) Nuclear energy
10) Largest source of air pollution is ______________
a) Industries b) Vehicles c) Sewage d) Tanneries
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) Enlist local impacts of pollution.
ii) Define COD and give its applications.
iii) Give effects of mining on environment.
iv) Define nuclear pollution and give its sources.
v) Give various uses of isotopes.
vi) Define solid waste and give its types.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Describe effects of air pollutants on human and environment.
ii) Explain various routes of soil pollution and add a note on soil salinity.
iii) Explain non-conventional energy sources with suitable examples.
B) What is biogas ? Explain mechanism of biogas production and give its
applications. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Give detailed account of Chernobyl nuclear disaster.
ii) Describe various impacts of industrialization and urbanization on environment.
iii) Give detailed account of global warming and its consequences.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Describe energy plantation and give its applications.
ii) Enumerate the sources and effects of water pollution.
iii) Define eutrophication ? Explain mechanism of eutrophication and its
applications.
_____________________

Solapur University Question Paper,BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old) Biometry – II,2014 Question Paper,B.Sc. I (Semester – II)

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Biometry – II
Day and Date : Monday, 19-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Use of calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the correct alternative and write the sentence. 10
I) Data taken from the “Reserve Bank of India Bulletin” will be considered as
a) Primary data b) Secondary data
c) Primary and secondary data d) Tertiary data
II) The number of observations corresponding to a variable is always
a) A fraction b) May be negative
c) An integer d) A whole number
III) Which of the following is the first step in calculating the median of data set ?
a) average the middle two values of the data set
b) arrange the data in order
c) determine the relative weights of the data values in terms of importance
d) not necessary to arrange
IV) Mode is
a) middle most value b) the minimum value
c) most frequent value d) the maximum value
V) If 10 is subtracted from each observation then mean of the set of n
observations is
a) not affected b) zero
c) increased by 10 d) decreased by 10
Seat
No.
SLR-D – 17 -2-
VI) In standard deviation, the deviations of the items xi
 are always taken from
a) mean b) median c) mode d) zero
VII) A measure of dispersion which is independent of units is
a) range b) mean deviation
c) coefficient of variation d) standard deviation
VIII) The key for opening a door is in a bunch of 10 keys. A man attempts to open
the door by trying the keys at random. The probability that the door is opened
is
a) 10
4
b) 10
3
c) 10
2
d) 10
1
IX) The formula for rank correlation coefficient is
a) N N
D
3
2
−
∑σ
b) (N N)
D
1 3
2
σ − − + ∑
c) (N N)
1 D
3
2
σ −
+ ∑ d) N N
D
1 3
2
−
σ − ∑
X) If two events A and B are independent then the probability that they will both
occur is given by
a) P(A) + P(B) b) P(A)⋅P(B) c) P(A) −P(B) d) P(A)/P(B)
2. Answer any five of the following. 10
I) Define class mark and give an example.
II) Find out the value of median if mean = 16 and mode = 21.
III) If the smallest value in a set is 7 and its range is 85. What is the largest
value of the set is ?
IV) What are regression equations ? How they are useful ?
V) A die is thrown. Find the probability of getting an odd number.
VI) If the probability of hitting a target is 0.54. Write the probability of missing
the target.
-3- SLR-D – 17
3. A) Answer any two of the following. 6
I) Mean of 100 items is found to be 30. If at the time of calculations two
items were wrongly taken as 32 and 12 instead of 23 and II, find the
correct mean.
II) For a distribution, the C.V. and mean are 80% and 20 respectively. Find
variance of that distribution.
III) One lottery ticket is drawn at random from set of 40 tickets numbered
from 1 to 40. What is the probability that the number on the ticket drawn
is divisible by 3 or 4.
B) State the importance of statistics in biological sciences. 4
4. Answer any two of the following. 10
I) Calculate the median from table below
Marks 0 − 10 10 − 20 20 − 30 30 − 40 40 − 50
Frequency 22 38 46 34 20
II) Discuss various types of diagramatic or graphical representation of data.
III) Write a short note on “Normal distribution”.
5. Answer any two of the following. 10
I) Calculate the standard deviation for the following data.
Size of item 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Frequency 3 6 9 13 8 5 4
II) Find the regression line of Y and X, for the following data.
X 18 26 28 31 25 19 35
Y 11 16 19 17 14 11 24
III) Write a note on one way ANOVA. (Analysis of variance).
_

B.Sc. II Semester – III,GENETICS – I Mendelian & Population Genetics,Solapur University Question Paper, 2014 Question Paper

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Solapur University Question Paper

B.Sc. II Semester – III (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014

GENETICS – I

Mendelian & Population Genetics

Day and Date : Wednesday, 21-5-2014 Total Marks : 50

Time : 3.00 p.m.to 5.00 p.m.

Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat & labeled diagram wherever necessary.

3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative. 10

1) The genotype of the F1 heterozygous tall plant is ________

a) TT b) Tt

c) tt d) none of the above

2) How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plant were choosen by Mendel ?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 7

3) In inhibitory gene action F2 progenics remain in ________

a) 9 :7 b) 9 :3 :4 c) 13 : 3 d) 15 :1

4) Crossing over involves ________

a) deletion of chromosome b) addition of chromosome

c) exchange of genetic material d) mutation

5) Universal recipient belongs to the blood group ________

a) O b) A c) B d) AB

6) Chromosomes of higher plants are made up of ________

a) DNA + Histones b) DNA only

c) RNA + DNA d) DNA +pectines

7) Balbiani rings occur in _______

a) Lampbrush chromosome b) heterosome

c) allosome d) polytene chromosome

Seat

No.

8) A trisomic individual has a chromosome no. of ________

a) 2n +1 b) 2n – 1 c) 2n + 3 d) 2n +2

9) The effects of natural selection may be countered by ______

a) gene flow b) genetic drift c) mutation d) inbreeding

10) In ______ inversion, contains the centromere within the inverted segment.

a) pericentric b) paracentric c) acentric d) acrocentric

2. Answer any five of the following. 10

1) Define epistasis.

2) Define interaction of gene.

3) Define linkage.

4) What is test cross ?

5) What is plasmid ?

6) Define gene frequency.

3. A) Answer any two of the following. 6

1) Explain with suitable example co-dominance.

2) Describe mitochondrial inheritance.

3) Describe polytene chromosome.

B) Explain with suitable example law of independent assortment. 4

4. Answer any two of the following. 10

1) Describe inhibitory gene action.

2) What are multiple alleles ? Explain ABO blood group systerm in human.

3) Explain in detail euploidy.

5. Answer any two of the following. 10

1) Explain the mechanism of crossing over.

2) Describe Hardy-Weinberg Law.

3) Describe genetic basis of evolution in wheat.

____________________

B.Sc. – II (Sem. – III),BIOTECHNOLOGY Molecular Biology – I,Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper

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Solapur University Question Paper

B.Sc. – II (Sem. – III) Examination, 2014

BIOTECHNOLOGY

Molecular Biology – I (Molecular Biology of Gene)

Day and Date : Thursday, 22-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

 N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to right indicates full marks.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from the given

alternatives. 10

1) Split gene start and end with _______________

a) Intron b) muton c) recon d) exon

2) _____________ plays important role in photoreactivation.

a) photolyase b) Exonuclease

c) endonuclease d) methylase

3) In A – DNA – base pairs are present in per turn of the helical.

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

4) A nucleoid consists of ______________

a) a ss DNA b) a single double stranded DNA

c) histones and RNA d) histones and nonhistones

5) Centromere is also called ______________

a) Kinetochore b) Chromocentre

c) Secondary constriction d) Kinetosome

6) Triplet codon refers to sequence of three bases on ____________

a) mRNA b) t RNA c) rRNA d) all the above

7) Histone protein synthesis occurs during ______________

a) G1 – phase b) G2 – phase c) S - phase d) Prophase

8) RNA does not possess ____________

a) Uracil b) Thymine c) Adenine d) Cytosine

SLR-D – 20

9) Okazaki fragments are ________________

a) Small segments of RNA

b) Small peptides

c) Small DNA fragments

d) Small DNA fragments formed over DNA template running in 3′ → 5′ direction

10) t RNA attaches amino acids at its _______________

a) 3′ end b) 5′ end c) anticodon d) loop

2. Answer any five of the following : 10

1) What are mini satellites ?

2) Define – Introns

3) Define – Gene

4) What is histone ?

5) Enlist the properties of B-DNA from.

6) What is cot curve ?

3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6

1) Explain the organization the viral genome.

2) Give an account of molecular nature of gene.

3) What is SOS repair mechanism ?

B) Write an essay on – structure and functions of t RNA. 4

4. Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

1) DNA damage

2) Euchromatin

3) Mechanism of DNA replication in prokaryotes.

5. Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

1) Genetic code

2) Nucleotide excision repair

3) Regularity sequences.

_____________________

Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper,ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY – I (Pollution and Toxicology),B.Sc. II (Semester – III)

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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. II (Semester – III) Biotechnology Examination, 2014
ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY – I
(Pollution and Toxicology)
Day and Date : Saturday, 24-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives given below.
10
i) __________ are biodegradable waste products.
a) rubber, plastic, manure
b) metal, glass, plastic
c) vegetable peels, garden refuse, paper
d) glass, wood cuttings, batteries
ii) The main cause of water pollution is
a) treated sewage, glass battles and plastic bags
b) chemical effluent, leaching of pesticides and algae
c) pesticides, treated sewage and litter
d) oil spills, untreated sewage and chemical effluent
iii) Depletion of ozone layer in outer atmosphere is incidence of
a) skin cancer b) lung cancer c) bronchitis d) asthma
Seat
No.
SLR-D – 22
SLR-D – 22 -2-
iv) Green house effect causes
a) cooling of the earth b) warming of the earth
c) trapping of UV rays d) production of cereals
v) Rain is called as acid rain when its pH is below
a) 7 b) 6.5 c) 6 d) 5.6
vi) The term “Bio-magnification” refers to the
a) growth of organism due to food consumption
b) increase in population size
c) blowing up of environmental issues by men
d) increase in concentration of non degradable pollutants as they pass
through food chain
vii) The __________ is the concentration estimated to produce mortality in
50% of a test population over a specific time period.
a) LD 50 b) LC 50 c) EC 50 d) half life
viii) DDT is an example of
a) antibiotic
b) biodegradable pollutant
c) non-biodegradable pollutant
d) All of these
ix) Most harmful environmental pollutants are
a) biodegradable
b) corrosive agents
c) non-biodegradable chemicals
d) all of these
x) The primary organ that is involved in detoxification process is
a) liver b) lung c) mucosa d) skin
-3- SLR-D – 22
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) State the types of toxic substances.
ii) What is lead pollution ?
iii) Enlist the router of toxicants to human body.
iv) What is the effect of global warming ?
v) Explain the thermal effluents.
vi) Define the terms lethal dose and sub-lethal dose.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Write a note on oil pollution.
ii) Give the various principles of toxicology.
iii) What is LD 50 ? How it is determined ?
B) Explain various sources of air pollution. 4
4. Answer any two of the following. 10
i) Explain impacts of radioactive pollution. Add a note on radioactivity of hydro
carbons.
ii) What are agricultural drainages ? Explain with phenomenon of eutrophication.
iii) Explain various routes of transport of toxicants by air and water.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) What is soil pollution ? Explain sources, effects and control measures of
soil pollution.
ii) Discuss the dose-response relationship between chemical and biological
reactions in human body.
iii) Define hydrocarbon. Explain mechanism of transport and diffusion of
hydrocarbons.
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