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TNPSC announced VAO exam 2015 notification - apply online

November 12, 2015, 7:04 pm
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TNPSC on 12-11-2015, has released VAO vacancy notification. 813 vacancies are to be filled in various districts of Tamil Nadu. 10th / SSLC / Matriculation is the minimum qualification to apply. Only online application will be accepted. Candidates with one time registration need to apply through TNPSC web portal http://tnpscexams.net/

TNPSC Chennai Careers 2015 VAO 813 Vacancies
Posted Date: 12 Nov 2015      Posted By: Jebaprincy    Member Level: Diamond  Points: 2  
Category: Government Jobs
TNPSC Chennai has advertised online for the recruitment of 813 VAO job vacancies. Interested and eligible job aspirants are requested to apply online on or before 14th December 2015. Learn further more details below.

Employer: TNPSC Chennai
Address:TNPSC, Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India.
Email: Not provided
URL: http://www.tnpsc.gov.in
Phone: Not provided
Skills: Not required
Experience: Not required
Education: SSLC / 10th Std / Matriculation

Job Location:Anywhere in Tamil Nadu

Job Description: TNPSC Chennai Careers 2015 VAO 813 Vacancies


TNPSC Chennai invites applications for filling-up the following vacancies.

Name of the posts: Village Administrative Officer VAO

Number of Vacancies: 813

Qualification: SSLC / 10th Std / Matriculation

Salary: Basic Pay 5200 Grade Pay 2400 in Pay Band I category

Age Limit: 30 years for GEN/UR ; All others 40 years

Exam Pattern:
Applicants have to write examination in OMR coding sheet
Questions Papers will be in 10th Std Level
General Knowledge / General Studies - 75 Questions
Village Administration Process - 25 Questions
Aptitude and Mental Ability - 20 Questions
General Tamil or General English - 80 Questions
Total 200 Questions
Total 300 marks (Each question carries 1.5 marks)
Exam Time : 3 hours.
Minimum qualifying marks : 90 marks (60 questions)
There is no personal interview.

Place of Posting : Tamil Nadu

District-wise Vacancies:
Ariyalur - 22
Chennai - 01
Coimbatore - 04
Cuddalore - 37
Dharmapuri - 12
Dindigul - 07
Erode - 18
Kanchipuram - 59
Kanyakumari - 01
Karur -12
Krishnagiri - 29
Madurai - 12
Nagapattinam - 45
Namakkal - 07
Perambalur - 09
Pudukkottai - 28
Ramanathapuram - 18
Salem - 0
Sivagangai - 18
Thanjavur - 93
The Nilgiris - 03
Theni - 03
Thoothukudi - 03
Thiruchirappalli - 18
Tirunelveli - 13
Tiruvallur - 82
Tirupur - 8
Tiruvarur - 51
Thiruvannamalai - 45
Vellore - 34
Villupuram - 100
Virudhunagar - 01

How to apply: Interested and eligible candidates are requested to send apply online at http://tnpscexams.net/ . One Time Registration ID should be used to login and apply.

Last date: 14th December 2015

Last date for paying exam fee : 16th December 2015

Exam Date: 14th February 2015 (10:00 am to 01:00 pm)

Reference: http://www.tnpsc.gov.in/notifications/19_2015_not_eng_vao_2015.pdf [English Version]
http://www.tnpsc.gov.in/notifications/19_2015_not_tam_vao_2015.pdf [Tamil Version]
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ME2403 Power Plant Engineering Nov Dec 2015 Important Questions

November 12, 2015, 8:13 pm
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Looking for ME2403 Power Plant Engineering important questions of previous years ? IUQP updates all university old question papers, lecture notes, 2 marks questions with answers, model question papers, sample exam papers, 16 marks questions and all important questions regularly. Here below is one of the questions which are important questions asked in Anna University examinations in past years. The subject of these important questions is ME2403 Power Plant Engineering . It is BE Mechanical Engineering VII semester Regulation 2008.

Anna University Chennai
Department of B.E Mechanical Engineering
Seventh Semester
ME2403 Power Plant Engineering
November / December 2015 Exam Important Questions
(Regulation 2008)

Anna University Chennai
Department of B.E-Mechanical Engineering
B.E / B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION Nov Dec 2015
SEVENTH SEMESTER
M52403 Power Plant Engineering
(REGULATION 2008)

1. Draw a general layout of a thermal power plant and explain the working of various circuits in it. (16)

2. (i) List out the advantages combined power plants. (8)
(ii) Draw and discuss the layout of diesel plant (8)

3. Draw the complete layout of steam power plant and explain its major component

4. (i) Draw a neat diagram of LaMont boiler and explain its working. (8)
(ii) In the View of perform and safety compare steam, hydro, nuclear power plant. (8)

5. (i) List down the advantages of burning the fuels in pulverized form. (8)
(ii) Explain with the help of a diagram. the working of a cyclone separator. (8)

6. (i) List the advantages and disadvantages of surface condensers. (8)
iii) Describe with a neat sketch the operation of a hyperbolic cooling tower. (8)

7.  (i) Describe the venom types of grates used with hand fired furnaces. (8)
(ii) Enumerate the advantages pulverized fuel firing. (8)

8. Explain in detail about mechanical dust collector and electrostatic precipitator. Why both are
used in a single unit in modern power plants? (16)

9. (i) Describe the operation of a balanced drought system (8)
(ii) Name the different types of condenser. Describe the operation of surface condenser (8)

10. (i) What are the factors considered in selecting a prime mover for a hydroelectric power plant? (8)
(ii) Describe the working of a low head hydro plant with a neat diagram (8)

11. (i) Explain the principal parts of nuclear reactor in brief. (8)
(ii) Explain with neat sketch the working of CANDU type reactor. (8)

12. Write a note on the (i) fuel system and (ii) lubrication system power plant. (13)

13. With line diagrams explain the regeneration and reheat cycle. Also Discuss the effect on the efficiency due to these cycles. (16)

14. Explain the various methods of power generation from geothermal energy. (16)

15. What are the various costs involved in power plant? Discuss the economics in plant section.(16)

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AT6302 Mechanics of Machines Nov Dec 2015 Important Questions

November 12, 2015, 10:49 pm
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Are you looking for AT6302 Mechanics of Machines important questions Nov Dec 2015 ? We are constantly updating all important questions, previous years papers, lecture notes, question banks of AT6302 Mechanics of Machines . You will here find an important question paper of AT6302 Mechanics of Machines in Anna University Chennai. This is automobile engineering subject taught in B.E Aeronautical Engineering as one of the allied subject. It comes under the syllabus of R-2013 of 03rd Semester. Look more details below and find your question paper of AT6302 Mechanics of Machines.

Anna University Chennai
Department of B.E. Aeronautical Engineering
(A subject of Automobile Engineering)
Third Semester
AT6302 Mechanics of Machines
(Regulation-2013)
Exam Date: 16th November 2015.
Also see the exam time table of B.E Aeronautical Engineering Nov Dec 2015 here

Unit 1:

1. ABCD is a 4 bar chain with link AD fixed. The lengths of the links are AB = 5.25 cm. BC = 17.5 cm. CD =11.3 cm and DA = 20 cm. The crank AB makes 180 rpm. Find acceleration of C and the angular acceleration of BC and CDwhen angle BAD is 15 degree. And B and C lie on opposite sides of AD.

2. Sketch and explain any two inversions of a double slider crank chain.

3. Explain any 3 inversion of single slider mechanism. Determine the degrees of freedom (mobility) of the 3 bar, 4 bar and 5 bar mechanism.

4. Draw the profile of cam which raises a valve with SHM through 3 cm in 1/3 revolution keep it fully raised through 1/12 revolution and it is closed in next 13 revolution with SHM. The valve remains closed during the rest of the revolution. The diameter of the roller is 1 cm and the minimum radius of the cam is 2 cm, the axis of the valve rod is offset by 1 cm from the axis of cam shaft.

5. A cam rotating clockwise at a uniform speed of 200 rpm is required to move a roller follower with a uniform and equal acceleration and retardation on both the outward and return strokes. The angle of ascent the angle of dwell (between ascent and descent) and the angle of descent is 120°. 60". and 90° respectively. The follower dwells for the rest of cam rotation. The least radius of the cam is 50 mm. the lift of the follower is 25 mm and the diameter of the roller is 10 mm. Draw the cam profile and
find the maximum velocity and acceleration of the follower during the out-stroke.

Unit 2:

1. State and prove law of gearing. A sun wheel of 28 teeth is in mesh with a planet of 18 teeth and both are held in arm. The planet wheel is in contact with an internal wheel of 64 teeth which is coaxial with the sun wheel. Sketch the arrangement of the gears and compute the angular velocity ratio between arm and the internal wheel if sun wheel is fixed.

2. A pair of involute spur gears with 16" pressure angle and pitch of module 6 mm is in mesh. The number of teeth in pinion is 16 and its rotational speed is 240 rpm. The gear ratio is 1.75. in order to avoid the interference. determine (1) addenda on pinion and wheel (2) length of path of contact (3) maximum velocity of sliding on either side of pitch point.

3. Two involute gears of 20° pressure angle are in mesh. The number of teeth on pinion is 20 and the gear ratio is 2. If the pitch expressed in module is 5 mm. and the pitch line speed is 1.2 m/s. determine the angle turned through by pinion. when one pair of teeth is in mesh. Also calculate the maximum velocity of sliding. Take addendum as one module.

4. In a epicyclic gear train an arm carries two gears A and 3 having 40 and 60 teeth. if arm rotates at 200 rpm in clockwise direction about the centre of gear A which is fixed makes 300 rpm in the anticlockwise direction. what will be the speed of gear B.

5. Tow involute gears of 20° pressure angle are in mesh. The number of teeth on pinion is 20 and the gear ratio is 2. If the pitch expressed in module is 5 mm. and the pitch line speed is 1.2 m/s, determine the angle turned through by pinion. when one pair of teeth is in mesh. Also calculate the maximum velocity of sliding. Take addendum as one module.

Unit 3:

1. A multiplate clutch has three pairs of contact surfaces. The outer and inner radii of the contact surfaces are 100 mm and 50 mm respectively. The axial spring force is limited to lkN. Assuming uniform wear. find the power transmitted at 1500 rpm. Take u= 0.35

2. A V-belt drive consists of three V belts in parallel on grooved pulleys of the same size. The angle of groove is 30 degree and the co-efficient of friction is 0.12. The cross sectional area of each belt is 750 mm^2 and the permissible safe stress in the material is 7 Mpa. Calculate the power that can be transmitted between two pulleys 400 mm in diameter rotating at 960 rpm. (10 marks) (ii). Derive the condition for maximum power transmission in the belt drives (6 marks)

3. An open belt running over two pulleys 240 mm and 600 mm diameter connects two parallel shafts 3 metres apart and transmits 4 kw from the smaller pulley that rotates at 300 mm. Coefficient of friction between the belt and the pulley is 0.3 and the safe working tension is ION per mm width. Determine : 1. minimum width of the belt. 2. initial belt tension. and 3. length of the belt required.

4. A shaft running at 500 rpm carries a pulley 100 cm dia which drives another pulley in the same direction with a speed reduction of 2:1 by means of ropes. The drive transmits 187 kw. Angle of groove is 40 degree. The distance between pulley centres is 200 cm. The coefficient of frictions is 0.2. The mass of the rope is 0.12 kg/m and allowable stress of 175 N/cm^2. It is recommended that initial tension in the rope should not exceed 800 N. Find the no. of ropes requires and rope dia. Calculate the length of rope also.

5. A single plate clutch effective on both sides is required to transmit 25 kw at 3000 rpm. Determine the outer and inner radi of frictional surface if the coefficient of friction is 0.255 the ratio is radii is 1.25 and the max. pressure is not exceed 0.1 N/mm^2. Also determine the axial load.

Unit 4:

1. For reciprocating engine. derive the expression for 
(i) Velocity and acceleration of the piston (16 marks)
(ii) Angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod (16)

2. (i) Deduce the expression for the inertia force in the reciprocating force neglecting the weight of the connecting rod. (8)
(ii) A vertical petrol engine with cylinder of 150 mm diameter and 200 mm strokes has a connecting rod of 350 mm long. The mass is 1.6 kg and the engine speed is 1800 rpm. On the expansion stroke with crank angle 30 degree from TDC. the gas pressure is 750 KPa. Determine the net thrust on the piston.

3. The length of crank and connecting rod of a horizontal reciprocating engine are 100 mm and 500 mm respectively. The crank is rotating at 400 rpm.When the crank has turned 30 degree from the IDC, find analytically
1.Velocity of piston
2. Acceleration of piston
3. Angular velocity of connecting rod
4. Angular acceleration of connecting rod. (16)

4. The turning moment diagram for a petrol engine is drawn to a scale of 1 mm to 6N-9-9 m and the horizontal scale of 1 mm to 1". The turning moment repeat itself after every half revolution of the engine. The area above and below the mean torque line are 305, 710, 50, 350, 980 and 275 mm^2. The mass of rotating parts is 40 kg at a radius of gyration of 140 mm. Calculate the coefficient of fluctuation of speed if the mean speed is 1500 rpm. (16)

Unit 5:

1. The spacing of the 4-cylinders A, B, C and D of a vertical in-line engine is 650 mm, 500 mm and 650 mm. The reciprocating masses of the inner cylinders B and C are 80 kg and their cranks are at 60 degree to one another. The stroke is 325 mm and connecting rods are 600 mm long. Find the magnitude of the reciprocating masses for the outer cylinders A and D and the relative angular position of all the cranks if primary forces and couples are to be balanced. What is the maximum
unbalanced secondary force when the speed of engines 375 rpm.

2. A.B. C and D are four masses carried by a rotating shaft at radii 100 mm. 125 mm. 200 mm and 150 mm respectively. The planes in which the masses revolve are spaced 600 mm apart and the masses of B, C, and D are 10 kg, 5 kg and 4 kg respectively. Find the required mass A and relative angular setting of the four masses so that the shalt be in complete balance.

3. A twin cylinder uncoupled locomotive has its cylinders 60 cm apart and balanced masses are 60 deg apart the planes being symmetrically placed about the centre line. For each cylinder the revolving masses are 300 kg at crank pin radius of 32 cm and reciprocating parts are 285 kg. All the revolving and 2/3rd of reciprocating parts are balanced. The driving wheels are 1.8 m dia. When the engine runs at 60 kmph. Find the swaying couple. variation in tractive effort and hammer blow and the distance centre line of wheels is 1.5 m. (AU May/June 2009)

4. Two equal masses of weight 5000 N and radii of gyration 375 mm are keyed to the opposite ends of shaft 600 mm long. The shaft is 100 mm in diameter for the first 250 mm, 175 mm in diameter and 150 mm for the rest. Find the frequency of torsional vibration and the position of the node along the length of the shaft. Take modulus of rigidity of the shaft material is 30 GN/m^2

5. A machine of mass 75 kg is mounted on springs of stiffness 1200 KN/m and with as assumed damping factor of 0.2. A piston within the machine of mass 2 kg has a reciprocating motion with a stroke of 80 mm and a speed of 3000 cycle/min. Assuming the motion to be simple harmonic. find the amplitude of motion of machine. its phase angle with respect to the exciting force. the phase angle of transmitted force with respect to the exciting force.

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MA6451 Probability and Random Processes

November 12, 2015, 11:02 pm
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Looking for MA6451 Probability and Random Processes important questions Nov Dec 2015 ? Anna University Chennai has planned to conduct this exam on 16th November 2015. We are updating lecture notes, question bank, previous years question papers, model / sample question papers, 2 marks / 16 marks with answers and all important questions of MA6451 Probability and Random Processes. So you will be able to get all study materials related to MA6451 Probability and Random Processes here at www.indianuniversityquestionpapers.com . Below is the collection of important questions of MA6451 Probability and Random Processes, which may be expected to be appeared in the upcoming Anna University examinations. This subject is one of the paper of B.E ECE 4th Semester in R-2013.

Anna University Chennai
Department of B.E ECE
Fourth Semester
MA6451 Probability and Random Processes
November / December 2015 Exam Important Questions
(Regulation 2013)

Questions will be updated soon....

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EC6304 Electronic Circuits I 3rd Sem AU Chennai BE ECE Nov Dec 2015 Important Questions

November 12, 2015, 11:44 pm
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Searching for EC6304 Electronic Circuits I important questions Nov Dec 2015 ? We are constantly updating all important questions, previous years papers, lecture notes, question banks of EC6304 Electronic Circuits I . You will here find an important question paper of EC6304 Electronic Circuits I in Anna University Chennai. This is a subject taught in B.E Aeronautical Engineering as one of the main subject. It comes under the syllabus of R-2013 of 03rd Semester examinations. Know more details below and find your question paper of EC6304 Electronic Circuits I.

Anna University , Chennai
Department of B.E ECE
Third Semester
EC6304 Electronic Circuits I
November / December 2015 Exam Important Questions
(Regulation 2013)
Exam Date: 04th December 2015
See also the AU Chennai R-2013 B.E ECE Nov Dec 2015 Exam Time Table






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B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (Biotechnology),Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper,BIOCHEMISTRY AND CELL PHYSIOLOGY (Paper – I) (New)

November 13, 2015, 1:47 am
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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
BIOCHEMISTRY AND CELL PHYSIOLOGY (Paper – I) (New)
Biochemistry
Day and Date : Monday, 12-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
 N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternative given below : 10
i) The general formula for monosaccharides is ___________
a) CnH2nOn b) C2nH2On c) CnH2O2n d) CnH2nO2n
ii) Long chain ____________ fatty acids are solid at room temperature.
a) Saturated b) Unsaturated
c) Essential d) Sphingosine containing
iii) The sulphur containing amino acid is ____________
a) Valine b) Leucine
c) Methionine d) Asparagine
iv) The complementary base for guanine is ____________
a) Thymine b) Cytosine c) Adenine d) Uracil
v) Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin ___________
a) A b) D c) K d) C
vi) In Watson-Crick DNA model number of base pairs per turn is _________
a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
vii) The protein present in hair is ____________
a) Elastin b) Myosin c) Keratin d) Trophocollagen
viii) _______________ is an example of saturated fatty acids.
a) Arachidonic acid b) Linoleic acid
c) Oleic acid d) Palmitic acid
SLR-DN – 53
ix) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are ______________
a) Stereoisomers b) Epimers
c) Anomers d) Keto-aldo pairs
x) The amino acids having equal number of positive and negative charges is
called as _____________
a) Cations b) Anions
c) Zwitter ions d) Soluble amino acid
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
i) What is a trisaccharide ? Give examples.
ii) Write any two functions of fatty acids.
iii) Classify proteins based on their molecular shape.
iv) Distinguish between DNA and RNA.
v) Enlist the bonds involved in stabilization of structure of proteins.
vi) Explain the biochemical function of Vitamin A.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Describe the structure of sucrose.
ii) What are lipids ? State different classes of lipids.
iii) Discuss in brief about chemoproteins.
B) Explain in detail the structure, biochemical functions and deficiency disorders
of Vitamin D. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Write a note on polysaccharides.
ii) Describe in detail about prostaglandins.
iii) Discuss – A, B and Z forms of DNA.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Illustrate the quarternary structure of protein with suitable example.
ii) Write an account of RNAs and illustrate the structure of tRNA.
iii) Classify monosaccharides.
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COMPUTER SCIENCE (New) Taxonomy and Computer Science (Paper – II),2014 Question Paper,B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II) (Biotechnology),Solapur University Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 1:53 am
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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
COMPUTER SCIENCE (New)
Taxonomy and Computer Science (Paper – II)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 20-5-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
 N. B. :1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose the correct alternative from the following and rewrite the sentence. 10
1) E-mail stands for ________
a) Electronic mail b) Electronically mail
c) Exchange mail d) None
2) ________ is a most widely used search engine.
a) bing b) google
c) khoj d) hit counter
3) In Excel, the default file name is ________
a) Book 1 b) Document 1
c) Presentation 1 d) Table 1
4) ________ bits means 1 byte.
a) 4 b) 8
c) 16 d) 32
5) ________ is a pictorial representation of logic flow of a program.
a) flowchart b) Chart
c) Algorithm d) Pseudocode
6) ________ devices accept data and instructions from the user.
a) Output b) Input
c) Storage d) Utility
7) To open, the short cut key is ________
a) Ctrl+O b) Ctrl+N
c) Ctrl+P d) Ctrl+X
8) For database management system ________ package is used.
a) MS Word b) MS Excel
c) MS PowerPoint d) MS Access
SLR-DN – 58 -2-
9) The protocol that web servers and clients used to communicate with each
other is called ________
a) http b) Html
c) Url d) SMTP
10) ROM stands for ________
a) Read Only Mechanism b) Random Only Memory
c) Read Only Memory d) None
2. Answer any five of the following : 10
1) Explain the advantages of flow chart.
2) Explain any two methods to calculate average in Excel.
3) Explain “WAN”.
4) Draw the different symbols of flow chart.
5) Explain find and replace operations in word document.
6) Explain the following terms :
1) Data
2) Information.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 6
i) Explain preparation of chart in Excel.
ii) Explain the features of database.
iii) Converting binary to decimal
a) 110012 = ?10
b) 1010102 = ?10.
B) What is computer ? Explain different units of computer with diagram. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Explain “History of Computers” in detail.
ii) Explain Star, Bus and Ring topology with diagram.
iii) Draw a flow chart to display the area of circle and state its advantages and
disadvantages.
5. Answer any two of the following : 10
i) Explain “Page-setup” in Word.
ii) Explain modem and its types.
iii) Write a note on “E-mail”.
_____________________
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2014 Question Paper,ENGLISH (Compulsory) (Old),Solapur University Question Paper,B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (Entrepreneurship)

November 13, 2015, 1:57 am
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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (Entrepreneurship) Examination, 2014
ENGLISH (Compulsory) (Old)
Text Book : Realms of Gold : An Anthology for Degree Classes
Day and Date: Tuesday, 3-6-2014 Max. Marks: 50
Time: 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
 N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative given below them. 10
1) The high priest of Rameswaram temple was _________
a) Prashant Lakshmana Sastry b) Pakshi Lakshmana Sastry
c) Prabhu Lakshmana Sastry d) None of the above
2) Within the next twenty years _____________
a) half of the world’s population will be living in cities
b) all the world’s population will be living in cities
c) one third of the world’s population will be living in cities
d) none of the above
3) Datta had learnt by long experience that his customers never came _______
a) correctly b) punctually c) timely d) none of the above
4) Goldsmith presents the ___________ as an amusing character in his poem.
a) lawyer b) schoolmaster
c) doctor d) writer
5) Datta was a _________
a) painter b) frame-maker
c) goldsmith d) hunter
6) Let me give you ________ umbrella.
a) a b) an c) the d) none
7) _________ psychiastrist is a doctor who treats mental illness.
a) the b) an c) a d) none
Seat
No.
P.T.O.
SLR-E – 1
8) I wrote with ___________ pencil.
a) the b) an c) a d) none
9) The water was very cold __________ the child still jumped into the pool.
a) and b) but c) so d) or
10) Lakshmi sends e-mails __________ all her friends now and them.
a) in b) to c) at d) on
2. Write short answers of the following (any five) : 10
1) Describe briefly the locality in which Kalam stayed with his parents.
2) Mention ‘two’ qualities of Kalam’s father.
3) What is the forecast of Economic Commission for Africa ?
4) Describe the character and habits of the frame maker in a few words.
5) Describe the schoolmaster as he appeared to his students.
6) How will the urban explosion affect the standard of life ?
7) What was the intention of the customer in the story when he went to Datta ?
3. A) Write short answers of the following (any two) : 6
1) Why does Colin Legum says that the urban growth is harmful (carcinogenic) ?
2) What was the disaster that struck the photograph ? What was Datta’s
reaction to this disaster ?
3) Describe the house in which Abdul Kalam lived during his childhood.
B) Answer the following question in brief (any two) : 4
1) Write in brief the theme of the poem “The Village Schoolmaster”.
2) Why are more and more people attracted to cities ?
3) What did Kalam learn from his father about the power of prayer ?
4. Answer any one of the following : 10
1) Describe how would you prepare a favourite dish. Make list of the ingredients
required and describe the preparation in clear stages.
2) Nita is on her way to her violin class. She meets Dr. Prakash, her father’s
boss, outside the music school. The two persons greet each other and
exchange a few words before taking leave. Write a brief dialogue with
appropriate expressions.
5. Write a letter of an application for the post of lecturer in the college. Give your
details. 10
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B.Sc. (Entrepreneurship) (Semester – VI),ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (Comp.),Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 2:51 am
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Solapur University Question Paper
B.Sc. (Entrepreneurship) (Semester – VI) Examination, 2014
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (Comp.)
Day and Date : Sunday, 27-4-2014 Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Multiple choice questions : 10
I) Earth day is celebrated on _________.
A) 22nd Jan. B) 22nd Feb. C) 22nd March D) 22nd April
II) ‘Sahara’ is an example of _____ ecosystem.
A) Desert B) Forest C) Marine D) Grassland
III) Marine life is in danger due to __________ pollution.
A) Air B) Water C) Land D) Noise
IV) __________ gas is responsible for ozone depletion.
A) CFC B) CO2 C) SO2 D) O2
V) In India Wildlife Protection Act passed in __________.
A) 1962 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1992
VI) The main source of air pollution in India is ________.
A) Automobiles B) Industrialization
C) Forest fire D) Nuclear explosion
VII) _________ percent of earth geographical area is under water.
A) 60% B) 61% C) 70% D) 71%
VIII) Need for public awareness is important for the __________.
A) AIDS B) Malaria C) Filariasis D) Elephantiasis
IX) The primary source of energy is _________.
A) Wind B) Sun C) Hydal energy D) Tidels
X) Lion is _________ consumer in the ecosystem.
A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Heterotrophs
Seat
No.
SLR-E – 59
2. Write short answers of the following (any four out of six) : 8
a) Definition of environment
b) Food chain of ecosystem
c) Causes of water pollution
d) Causes of generation of solid waste
e) Biodiversity in Western Ghat
f) Causes of population growth.
3. Write short notes of the following (any four out of six) : 12
a) Forest ecosystem
b) Uses of minerals
c) Nuclear Hazards
d) Remedies of water pollution
e) Effects of water pollution
f) Causes of noise pollution.
4. a) What is Forest resources ? Describe how forest resources can be conserved.
10
OR
b) What is pollution ? Discuss the causes, effects and preventive measures of
air pollution.
5. Define global warming. Explain the causes and effects of it. 10
———————
↧
↧

APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – XIII),Solapur University Question Paper,M.Sc. – II (Semester – IV),2014 Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 11:23 pm
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – XIII)
Environmental Geology and Disaster Management
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-4-2014 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Answer any five questions.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Question 1 is compulsory.
4) Answer any two questions from each Section.
5) Draw neat and labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Choose the correct answer : 14
1) Earth day is celebrated on
a) 5th June b) 22nd June
c) 22nd April d) None
2) Where in India was the “Save the soil movement” started ?
a) Dehradun b) Hoshangabad
c) Goshwal d) Solapur
3) “Sundarbans”, the largest mangrove forest in the world lies in __________
India.
a) West b) North
c) East d) South
4) Solar cells are simple photovoltaic devices that convert solar energy directly
into electrical energy and are manufactured from the second-most abundant
element in the earth’s crust. Name it.
a) Al b) Si
c) Ca d) Fe
5) Which element is depleted most from the soil after a crop is harvested ?
a) K b) Na
c) F d) Cl
SLR-VE – 13 -2-
6) Which protocol/convention deals with ozone depleting substance ?
a) Montreal b) Kyoto
c) Bussel d) Delhi
7) Name the main element that is required to run a nuclear plant
a) As b) C
c) U d) K
8) There are three different types of coal. Two of them release a great deal of
pollutants into the air whereas the third release less smoke and is considered
to be less polluting. Name it.
a) Lignite b) Bituminous
c) Anthracite d) None
9) Ozone layer is present in which layer ?
a) Stratosphere b) Troposphere
c) Mesosphere d) None
10) Which of the following is not a green house gas ?
a) Methane b) Oxygen
c) CO2 d) CFC
11) The greatest Tsunami disaster that struck Sumatra-Andaman Islands killing
over 3 lakh people occurred on
a) 24-12-2004 b) 25-12-2004
c) 26-12-2004 d) None
12) Excess consumption of fluoride causes
a) Necrosis b) Fluorosis
c) Heart diseases d) None
13) Effective drainage of the soil prohibits soil
a) Salinity b) Fluorosis
c) Kankar formation d) None
14) Acid rains are the result of
a) Air pollution b) Sound pollution
c) Cloud pollution d) None
-3- SLR-VE – 13
SECTION – A
II. Discuss in detail the causes and effects of climate change. Add a note on food
security related to climate change. 14
III. Write in detail the composition of lithosphere. 14
IV. Write in detail on Killari earthquake. Add a note on disaster mitigation. 14
SECTION – B
V. Write briefly on the following : 14
a) GIS and Remote sensing in disaster management
b) Landslides.
VI. Write short notes on the following : 14
a) Classification of natural hazards
b) Composition of hydrosphere.
VII. Write salient aspects on the following : 14
a) Seismic zones of India
b) Source and classification of waste products.
_________________
↧

M.Sc. (Sem. – IV),APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – XIV),Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 11:26 pm
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. (Sem. – IV) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – XIV)
Energy Resources
Day and Date : Thursday, 24-4-2014 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
 N. B. : 1) Objective question is compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Ans. any two questions from 2, 3 and 4.
4) Ans. any two questions from 5, 6, and 7.
5) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
1. Choose correct answers : 14
1) Coal occurs commonly in _____________ rocks.
a) Basinal b) Igneous
c) Metamorphic d) Mylonitic
2) Which one of the following is not a structural trap ?
a) Anticline b) Ancient shoreline
c) Faut d) Shear gene
3) The constituents which make coal are termed as _____________
a) Mineral b) Maceral c) Gems d) Clays
4) Which one of the following is non productive basin ?
a) Bombay b) Cambay c) Bhima d) Asam
5) A map prepared by joining equal thickness points is _____________ maps.
a) Isopatch b) Isohight c) Isobar d) Isocline
6) Pick out the non conventional energy resource.
a) Wood b) Coal c) Solar d) Rock oil
7) Which one of the following is renewable resource ?
a) Coal b) Hydrocarbon
c) Radioactive d) Tidal
8) Pick out suitable cap rock from
a) Lime stone b) Granite c) Shale d) Sandstone
9) Highest rank of the Coal is _____________
a) Lignite b) Bituminous c) Peat d) Anthracite
SLR-VE – 14
10) The first stage of coal formation is represented by _____________
a) Peatification b) Maturation
c) Catagenesis d) Metagenesis
11) Cambay basin falls in _____________ State.
a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat
c) M.P. d) U.P.
12) Migration of petroleum from the cap rock to atmosphere through soil cover is
termed as _____________
a) Primary b) Secondary
c) Tertiary d) None of these
13) The origin of petroleum is advocated from _____________ source.
a) Extra terrestrial b) Mantle
c) Intrusives d) Sedimentary basin
14) Quality of oil is measure by API degree _____________ of oil.
a) Viscosity b) Density
c) Gravity d) Fugacity
2. Describe various methods used to decide the quality of oil in laboratory. 14
3. Write an essay on the oil potential of Bombay High Basin. 14
4. Write in detail on the formation of coal. Add a note on their classification. 14
5. Write in short on any two : 14
a) Reservoir rocks.
b) Structural traps
c) Cap rocks.
6. Write in brief on any two : 14
a) Macerals
b) API gravity
c) Incipassination.
7. Describe in brief any two : 14
a) Non conventional energy resource.
b) Isopach maps.
c) Proximate analysis.
_____________________
↧

2014 Question Paper,APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – XV),Solapur University Question Paper,M.Sc. II (Semester – IV)

November 13, 2015, 11:29 pm
$
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – XV)
Remote Sensing and GIS
Day and Date : Saturday, 26-4-2014 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Answer any five questions.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Question 1 is compulsory.
4) Answer any two questions from question number II, III and IV.
5) Answer any two questions from question number V, VI and VII.
6) Draw neat and labeled diagram wherever necessary.
I. Fill in the blanks : 14
1) _____________ sensor developed Indian Satellite.
A) SPOT B) NOAA C) LISS D) MSS
2) _____________ spatial resolution IRS LISS-IV data.
A) 5 m B) 23 m C) 36 m D) 72 m
3) FCC stands for ____________
A) Falles Colour Composite B) False Colour Composite
C) Few Colour complex D) All of above
4) Formula for NDVI ____________
A) NIR/R B) NIR – R/NIR+R
C) VIR/R D) MIR/NIR
5) _____________ in form vector data Generate.
A) Point B) Line C) Polygon D) All of above
6) _______________ map display, location that fulfill all criteria.
A) Risk B) Thematic C) Topological D) None of these
Seat
No.
SLR-VE – 15 -2-
7) ____________ datum follow Indian GPS.
A) Clark 1886 B) NAD 20 C) WSR 80 D) WGS 84
8) _____________ Agency provided remote sensing data in India.
A) GSA B) NRSA C) ICAR D) DST
9) ____________ is GIS is based software.
A) Arc GIS B) SKADA
C) Expert choice D) All of the above
10) _____________ projection follow in Indian map.
A) Lambort B) UTM C) Polyconic D) None of these
11) _____________ error generate editing any feature in map Generation.
A) Node B) Vertex C) Overshoot D) None of these
12) Father of GIS ____________
A) Jayant Nurlikar B) Homibaba
C) Rojer Tomlinson D) Vijay Bhatkar
13) ____________ number of band mention in LISS-III sensor.
A) 4 B) 5 C) 2 D) 1
14) Thematic mapper having ____________ bands.
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 6
II. Describe thermal infrared remote sensing and its radiation properties.
III. Explain the detail component of GIS and its application.
IV. What are the role remote sensing and GIS in Geo-science ?
V. Write note on :
a) GPS
b) Data model
VI. Explain in short :
a) Photogrammetry
b) Electromegentic spectrum
VII. Describe in brief :
a) Softwares
b) Topology.
———————
↧

Solapur University Question Paper,APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – IV),M.Sc. I (Semester – I),2014 Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 11:32 pm
$
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. I (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – IV)
Geomorphology & Morphotectonics
Day and Date : Monday, 28-4-2014 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
N.B : 1) Answer any five questions.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Question 1 is compulsory.
4) Answer any two essay questions from 2, 3, 4.
5) Answer any two short note questions from 5, 6, 7.
6) Draw neat & labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate word. 14
1) ________ is the interpretative description of the relief features.
A) Geomorphology B) Geology
C) Geography D) All of the above
2) Complexity of geomorphic evolution is more common than simplicity was
defined by ________
A) Strabler B) Streets
C) Thornbury D) Monkhouse
3) Submergenic of the land refers to ________
A) Decline of sea level in relation to the land
B) Land beneath the water
C) Upliftment of the land
D) Rise of sea level in relation to the land
4) “Weathering may be defined as the mechanical fracturing or chemical
decomposition of rock by natural agents at the surface of the earth”
by _________
A) C.P. Ollier B) B.W. Sparks
C) Euler D) H. Hens
Seat
No.
P.T.O.
SLR-VE – 4 -2-
5) _________ weathering is also known as onoin weathering.
A) Exfoliation B) Hydration
C) Oxidation D) Carbonation
6) The process of hydration changes feldspar minerals into kaolinite is known
as _______
A) Hydrolysis B) Chelation
C) Kaolinization D) Solution
7) The landforms resulting from several cycles of erosion whether complete or
incomplete are called _________
A) Cyclic landforms B) Polycyclic landforms
C) Multicyclic landforms D) None of these
8) Which are the major factors that interrupt the normal cycle of erosion ?
A) Volcanic eruption B) Climatic changes
C) A & B both D) None of these
9) Who postulated the concept of geomorphic cycle of erosion ?
A) Walter Penck B) W.M.Davis
C) King D) Crikmay
10) Annular drainage pattern is also known as _____ pattern.
A) Barbed B) Pinnate
C) Rib D) Circular
11) The areas of accumulation of huge volume of ice are called _____
A) Snow lines B) Glaciers
C) Snow fields D) Ferm
12) What are pinnacles ?
A) Narrow Ridge B) Narrow Depression
C) Flat land D) None of these
13) An isolated mass or rock near coastline is called _____
A) Rias B) Stacks
C) Bars D) Roofs
14) The movement of two plates toward each other direction is called ____ plate
margins.
A) Constructive B) Destructive
C) Conservative D) None of these
-3- SLR-VE – 4
2. Explain fundamental concept in geomorphology. 14
3. Describe Erosional & depositional land form of River [Fluvial]. 14
4. What is drainage system ? Explain major drainage system. 14
5. Write short note on : 14
A) Lineament analysis
B) Beach process & shorelines changes.
6. Write small account on : 14
A) Cycle of Erosion
B) Chemical weathering
7. Discuss in brief : 14
A) Depositional landform of Aeolian
B) Polycyclic Relief.
_______
↧
↧

2014 Question Paper,M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II),Solapur University Question Paper,APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – VI)

November 13, 2015, 11:38 pm
$
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – VI)
Indian Stratigraphy
Day and Date : Thursday, 24-4-2014 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.
2) Answer any two questions each from Section A and
Section B.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
4) All questions carry equal marks.
1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words. 14
1) The smallest rock unit is known as ___________
a) Bed b) Member
c) Formation d) Group
2) The two fold classification of Gondwana is based on __________
a) Unconformity b) Floral characteristics
c) Climatic conditions d) All the above
3) The Lilang Group in spiti is considered the Indian type area for the _________
a) Permian b) Jurassic
c) Triassic d) Cretaceous
4) The carbonaceous Bijaigarh shale formation belong to __________
a) Semri group b) Rewa group
c) Bhander group d) Kaimur group
5) Penganga group belong to __________
a) Godavari supergroup
b) Gondwana supergroup
c) Dharwar supergroup
d) None of these
SLR-VE – 6 -2-
6) The older lithostratigraphic succession of Kaladgi basin is __________
a) Simikeri subgroup b) Lokapur subgroup
c) Sedam subgroup d) Andola subgroup
7) Gaj formation from Bhavanagar to Okha Rann, contains a __________
a) Sandstones
b) Gravels
c) Variety of mega-and microfossils
d) Coals
8) Gogi in Bhima basin is important for ____________
a) Thorium b) Tungsten
c) Ilmenite d) Uranium
9) The age for the Papghni subbasin is ___________
a) Paleoproterozic b) Mesoproterozoic
c) Neoproterozic d) Paleozoic
10) Garbyang formation of Kumaun is equivalent to ___________
a) Kaladgi b) Haimantas
c) Vaikrata d) Kurnool
11) In intertrappean beds physa is reported from ___________
a) Panjal trap b) Rajmahal trap
c) Deccan trap d) Both (b) and (c)
12) Gorumahasani and Badampur hills in the Singhbhum craton are famous for
____________
a) Stratiform Cr deposits
b) Copper deposits
c) Coal deposits
d) Banded iron formations
13) The oldest unit of Jurassic succession of Rajasthan is __________
a) Lathi formation b) Jaisalmer formation
c) Laki series d) Lachi series
14) Lonar crater is situated in ____________
a) Nagpur District b) Buldana district
c) Ratnagiri district d) Akola district
-3- SLR-VE – 6
SECTION – A
2. Discuss in detail Greenstone belts of Eastern Dharwar craton. 14
3. Write a essay on deccan trap. 14
4. Give an detail account on the cretaceous succession in trichinopoly area. 14
SECTION – B
5. Write short notes on the following : 14
a) Sargur schist
b) Rajmahal trap and Shylet trap.
6. Describe in brief : 14
a) Lameta formation
b) Regional stratigraphy of Bastar craton.
7. Write notes on : 14
a) Triassic sequence of spiti
b) Muth quartzite.
_____________________
↧

APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – VII),2014 Question Paper,M.Sc. I (Semester – II), Solapur University Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 11:44 pm
$
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – VII)
Hydrogeology
Day and Date : Saturday, 26-4-201412 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Answer any five questions.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Question No. 1 is compulsory.
4) Answer any two questions from each Section.
5) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
I. Choose mark the correct answer. 14
1) Evaporation evapotranspiration, precipitation and runoff are three important
phases of the
a) Water cycle b) Water transfer cycle
c) Hylogic cycle d) b and c both
2) Frozen rain drops while falling through air at subfreezing temperature is known
as
a) Glaze b) Sleet c) Snow d) Hail
3) The air close to the warm earth gets heated and rises due to its low density,
cools adiabatically to form a cauliflower shaped cloud, which finally bursts in
to a thunder storm is a _________ type of precipitation.
a) Convectional precipitation b) Frontal precipitation
c) Orographic precipitation d) Cyclonic precipitation
4) The rate of evaporation is a function of the differences in vapour pressure at
the water surface and in the atmosphere, staling that the evaporation is
proportional to the difference in vapour pressures ew and ea is known as
a) Vapour pressure law b) Laplace’s law
c) Peter’s law d) Dalton’s law of evaporation
Seat
No.
SLR-VE – 7 -2--
5) The __________ is defined as that rate of rainfall above which the rainfall
volume equals the runoff volume.
a) W-index b) fave-index c) φ=index d) Y-index
6) The portion of runoff in a rising flood in a stream, which is absorbed by the
permeable boundaries of the stream above the normal phreatic surface is
called ________ storage.
a) depression b) detention c) bank d) phreatic
7) If the ground water table is below the bed of the stream, the seepage from the
stream feeds the ground water resulting in the build up of water mound, such
streams are called ________ streams.
a) influent b) effluent c) intermittent d) perennial
8) A formation that contains sufficient saturated permeable material to yield
significant quantities of water to wells and springs is known as
a) Aquiclude b) Aquifuse c) Aquitard d) Aquifer
9) An imaginary surface coinciding with the hydrostatic pressure level of the
water in the confined aquifer is known as
a) Piezometric surface b) Potentiometric surface
c) Aquisurface d) a and b both
10) _______ is defined as the volume of water that an aquifer releases from or
takes into storage per unit surface area of aquifer per unit change in the
component of head normal to that surface.
a) Storage coefficient b) Transmissivity
c) Specific yield d) Maximum yield
11) The flow rate through porous media is proportional to the headloss and
inversely proportional to the length of the flow path, is known as
a) Bernoullies law b) Possion’s law
c) Vector’s law d) Darcy’s law
12) Flow lines lie _________ to water table contours.
a) Perpendicular b) Orthogonal
c) Oblique d) Parallel
13) Naturally occurring radio isotopes (H3 and C14) are used to know
a) Residence times of water
b) Evaluating regional groundwater flow
c) Age of groundwater
d) All the above
14) The substances which are susceptible to the quantitative determination in
minute concentration, absent from natural water, do not react chemically
with the natural water, do not get absorbed by the porous media, safe in
terms of human health, inexpensive and readily available are ideal
a) Water sources b) Chemically active groundwater
c) Groundwater tracers d) None of the above
SECTION – A
II. Describe groundwater flow net and write in short how do you understand
groundwater setup of a region using groundwater flow net. 14
III. What are groundwater tracers ? Describe its usefulness in groundwater studies. 14
IV. Enumerate different graphic representations of chemical quality of
groundwater. 14
SECTION – B
V. Write notes on : 14
a) Groundwater basin investigations
b) Types of aquifers.
VI. Describe in brief : 14
a) Darcy’s law
b) Fresh-saline water relationship.
VII.Discuss in short : 14
a) Groundwater pollution
b) Infiltration.
————————
↧
Search

Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper,M.Sc. – I (Semester – II),APPLIED GEOLOGY Paper –VIII : Geochemistry

November 13, 2015, 11:48 pm
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. – I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY
Paper –VIII : Geochemistry
Day and Date : Tuesday, 29-4-2014 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m..m. 1.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) Answer any five question.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Question no. 1 is compulsory.
4) Answer any two questions from each Section.
5) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
I. Choose the correct answer : 10
1) The pH of the natural water lies between
a) 6-8.5 b) 7-8 c) 4-9 d) 1-7
2) The average salinity of the oceans is
a) 35% b) 15% c) 98% d) 10%
3) Find the odd one out
a) Ar b) Cw c) O d) H
4) The CO2 concentration in the atmosphere increase with increasing
consumption of
a) Tidal energy b) Solar energy c) Fossil fuel d) Nuclear energy
5) The Greek word chaleophile means love to
a) Sulphur b) Gases c) Iron d) All the above
6) Eh of an aqueous solution is a measure of its
a) Redox potential b) Alkalinity
c) Acidity d) None
Seat
No.
SLR-VE – 8 -2-
7) The sequence of concentration Co3 > So4 > Cl is noticed in
a) River water b) Sea water c) Glacial d) None
8) A rapid neutron capture or n- process produces elements havier than
a) Nickle b) Iron c) Bismuth d) Silicon
9) The geochemical character of an element is largely governed by
a) z/r b) z+r
c) Electronic configuration d) None
10) When lithophile form ions their outer most electron shell have
a) 8 electrons b) 18 electrons
c) incompletely filled d) 20 electrons
11) The radiometric dating of wood, charcoal, bone and shells are possible by
using
a) 236 U b) 232 Th c) 238 U d) 14C
12) The half life of 14C is
a) 5730 b) 5159 c) 5051 d) 1.31 × 109
13) The 5153 superior analysis were used in calculation of average composition
of
a) Igneous rocks b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks d) All the above
14) Deep lakes and marine environments are likely to undergo seasonal thermal
stratification into an underlying layer where temperature drops fast with depth
called as
a) Epilimnion b) Thermocline c) Hypolimnion d) Sediment
SECTION – A
Attempt any two questions from this Section.
II. Discuss different concepts in determination of the average composition of Igneous
rocks.
III. Describe the evolution of atmosphere highlighting the gains and losses during
geological time. Add a note on climate change.
IV. Discuss the physico-chemical factors of elements during sedimentation.
-3- SLR-VE – 8
SECTION – B
Attempt any two questions from this Section.
V. Write briefly on any two of the following :
a) Lithophiles
b) Cosmic abundance of elements.
c) Geological material for radio active dating.
VI. Write short notes on any two of the following :
a) difference between sea water and river water
b) primary differentiation of elements
c) Gibbs free energy.
VII. Bring out the salient aspects on the following :
a) Average composition of earth
b) Eh
 - pH diagrams.
c) Origin of elements.
__________________
↧

APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – IX),M.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – III),Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 11:52 pm
$
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – III) Examination, 2014
APPLIED GEOLOGY (Paper – IX)
Structural Geology and Geotectonics
Day and Date : Monday, 21-4-2014 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Question number I is compulsory.
2) Answer any two questions from Section – A.
3) Answer any two questions from Section – B.
4) All questions carry equal marks.
5) Draw neat, labelled diagrams or sketches wherever
necessary.
I. Select the correct option from the choices given below :
1) ________________ are formed due to orogenesis.
a) Block mountains b) Fold mountains
c) Rift valleys d) Cratons
2) The strike of ________________ is oblique to strike and dip of bedding plane
of the rocks involved.
a) Bedding joints b) Strike joints
c) Dip joints d) Diagonal joints
3) At greater depth in lithosphere, the rocks are subjected to equal force from
all sides known as ________________ pressure.
a) Hydrostatic b) Lithostatic
c) Atmospheric d) Directed
4) The ________________ states that stress is proportional to strain.
a) Hooke’s Law b) Newton’s Law
c) Young’s Modulus d) Bulk Modulus
SLR-VE – 9 -2-
5) The value of Poisson’s ratio falls between ________________
a) – 1 and – 2 b) – 2
1
 and 1 c) – 1 and + 2
1
d) –1 and + 2
6) ________________ substances undergo extensive plastic deformation before
rupture.
a) Ductile b) Brittle c) Amorphous d) Solid
7) ________________ are rocks consisting of parallely assigned finely crushed
particles of rocks and minerals.
a) Fault breccia b) Mylonites
c) Gneisses d) Hornfels
8) Shear fractures make an angle of ________________ degrees with the
greatest principle stress axis (σ1)
a) 0 b) 90
c) Less than 45 d) None of the above options
9) ________________ in orogenic belts marks the closure of continents after
their collision.
a) Basalts b) Ophiolites
c) Granites d) Flaser rocks
10) Basaltic rocks of identical age are found on either sides of ______________
a) convergent plate boundaries b) mid-oceanic ridges
c) subduction zones d) deep oceanic trenches
11) The ________________ boundary between continental plates has given rise
to the Himalayan mountains.
a) divergent b) convergent
c) transform fault d) none of given options
12) ________________ studies on ocean floor provided reliable evidence to the
concept of continental drift.
a) Palaeomagnetic b) Radiometric
c) Structural geological d) Topographical
-3- SLR-VE – 9
13) Hot spots are formed as a result of ________________
a) Movements in the earths core b) Descending convection currents
c) Ascending convection currents d) Isostatic adjustments in the crust
14) The phanerozoic continental growth occurs in ________________
a) rift setting
b) intraplate setting
c) arc setting along active plate margins
d) continental collision setting
SECTION – A
Answer any two questions from this Section :
II. What are joints ? Give genetic classification of joints and their significance in
deformation structures.
III. What is foliation ? Discuss the morphology of different types of foliation.
IV. What is plate tectonics ? Discuss the concept in detail.
SECTION – B
Answer any two questions from this Section :
V. Write notes on :
a) Tripple junction
b) Benioff zone.
VI. Describe the following :
a) Continental and oceanic crust.
b) Concept of deformation.
VII. Explain the following :
a) Seafloor spreading
b) Mohr circle.
_____________________
↧
↧

Paper – I : (CGPA Pattern) Advanced Bioinformatics (New),Solapur University Question Paper,M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II),2014 Question Paper

November 13, 2015, 11:57 pm
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOINFORMATICS
Paper – I : (CGPA Pattern) Advanced Bioinformatics (New)
Day and Date :Tuesday, 22-4-2014 Total Marks : 70
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions :1) Part – I, question 1 is compulsory.
2) Attempt any four questions from Part – II.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Answers to the Part – I and Part – II are to be written in
same answer booklet only.
PART – I
1. A) Rewrite the sentence after choosing the correct answer from the given
alternatives : 7
1) EMBOSS is a _______________ tool.
a) MSA b) Multiple Scoring
c) Alignment d) DDBJ
2) MP in phylogenetic refers to _______________
a) Multiple Parsimony b) Maximum Parsimony
c) Maxxam Parsimony d) Maximum Phylogeny
3) SAGE stands for _______________
a) Sequence Analysis Gene Expression
b) Series Abstract Genome Expression
c) Serial Analysis of Gene Expression
d) None
4) In Dali-lite program graphical result is viewed by _______________ viewer.
a) Jet b) Jlib c) Jmol d) All of these
5) E-mail stands for _______________
a) Electronic mail b) Extra mail
c) Ethernet mail d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-VR – 13
6) The PAM matrices were introduced by _______________
a) Margaret Dayhoff b) Feng and Doolittle
c) Henikoff and Henikoff d) None of these
7) Each amino acid corresponds to a _______________ turn in an alpha
helix.
a) 120° b) 100° c) 85° d) None of these
B) Definitions : 7
1) Synteny
2) Phylip
3) BankIt
4) Taxonomy
5) HMM
6) SAM
7) Comparative genomics.
PART – II
Answer any four of the following :
2. Explain in detail sequence pattern and profile analysis and add a note on
Gribskov method. 14
3. What are scoring matrices and give a detailed derivation of PAM and BLOSSUM
matrices ? 14
4. Describe in detail identification of secondary structure elements from the
knowledge structure. 14
5. Explain protein arrays, its basic principles and applications. 14
6. Answer any two from the following : 14
a) Identification of SNPs from SNP database.
b) Explain the Mega blast algorithm and add a note of BLAST2.
c) Use of HMM based algorithm for MSA.
7. Write short notes on (any two) : 14
a) MEGA
b) EXPASY
c) MUMmer.
_____________
↧

M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II),2014 Question Paper,BIOINFORMATICS Paper – II : Microbiology and Biotechnology (New),Solapur University Question Paper

November 14, 2015, 12:01 am
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
(CGPA Pattern)
BIOINFORMATICS
Paper – II : Microbiology and Biotechnology (New)
Day and Date : Thursday, 24-4-2014 Total Marks : 70
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Part – I, question 1 is compulsory.
2) Attempt any four questions from Part – II.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Answers to the Part – I and Part – II are to be written in
same answer booklet only.
PART – I
1. A) Rewrite the sentence after choosing the correct answer from the given
alternatives : 7
1) _______________ belongs to three domains of life.
a) Archaea b) Bacteria
c) Eukarya d) All of these
2) A ____________ bacterium is a devoid of cell wall.
a) E. coli b) Mycoplasma
c) Mycobacterium d) None of these
3) Molecular taxonomy is based on ______________
a) 28S rRNA b) 16S rRNA
c) 30S rRNA d) None of these
4) In ____________ process the genetic material is transferred from donor
to recipient cell by virus.
a) Transformation b) Transduction
c) Conjugation d) None of these
5) The concept of totipotency was proposed by _____________
a) Haberlandt b) Skoog
c) Cocking d) Miller
SLR-VR – 14
6) PCR technique was developed by ______________
a) Sanger b) Maxam and Gilbert
c) Kary Mullis d) Baltimore
7) The genetic material of virus is ______________
a) RNA b) DNA
c) RNA or DNA d) None
B) Definitions : 7
1) Bacteriophage
2) Phylogenetic tree
3) Prions
4) Totipotency
5) Gene therapy
6) Molecular marker
7) Archae.
PART – II
Answer any four of the following :
2. What is ‘Domain of life’ and give a detailed account on the General characteristics
of Archaea and Eubacteria. 14
3. Explain General structure of prokaryotic cell with neat labeled diagram. 14
4. Write a note on different types of cloning vectors. 14
5. Describe the physical methods of gene transfer. 14
6. Answer any two from the following : 14
a) Describe the genetic recombination in bacteria with reference to conjugation
process in bacteria.
b) Add a note on application of r-DNA technology in crop improvement.
c) Discuss the historical aspects of tissue culture.
7. Write short notes on (any two) : 14
a) Mycoplasma
b) Bacterial classification
c) Biolistic Gun.
_____________________
↧

Paper – III : Basic Biochemistry and Immunology (New) (CGPA Pattern),Solapur University Question Paper,2014 Question Paper,M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II)

November 14, 2015, 12:06 am
$
0
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Solapur University Question Paper
M.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOINFORMATICS
Paper – III : Basic Biochemistry and Immunology (New) (CGPA Pattern)
Day and Date : Saturday, 26-4-201412 Total Marks : 70
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Part I, Question 1 is compulsory.
2) Attempt any four questions from Part II.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Answers to the Part I and Part II are to be written in
same answer booklet only.
PART – I
1. A) Rewrite the sentence after choosing the correct answer from the given
alternatives. 7
1) The major source of energy for a living cell is
A) Carbon B) Nitrogen C) Oxygen D) Hydrogen
2) Enzymes belong to the class of _______ proteins.
A) Regulatory B) Signal C) Structural D) All
3) The basic components of lipids are
A) amino acids B) vitamins
C) fatty acids D) glucose
4) Agarose is an example of
A) Polysaccharide B) Monosaccharide
C) Oligosaccharide D) None
5) B cells are derived from _______ lineage.
A) Erythroid B) Myeloid C) Osteoid D) Leucoid
Seat
No.
SLR-VR – 15 -2--
6) _________ is an example of primary lymphoid organ.
A) Spleen B) Lymph node
C) Thymus D) None
7) Interleukins are produced by
A) RBCs B) WBCs C) Muscle cells D) None of these
B) Definitions : 7
1) ATP
2) Peptide bond
3) Polysaccharide
4) Innate immunity
5) Plasma cell
6) Interferon
7) Autoimmunity.
PART – II
Answer any four of the following :
2. Explain different types of amino acids. 14
3. Add a note on classification of carbohydrates. 14
4. Write a detailed note on adaptive immunity. 14
5. Define Antibody. Explain its structure with a neat diagram. 14
6. Answer any two from the following : 14
a) Write a note on functions of lipids.
b) Add a note on enzyme classification.
c) Explain the cell mediated immunity.
7. Write short notes on (any two) : 14
a) α Helix
b) Complement system
c) Immunodeficiency.
————————
↧
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